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In the field of Pharmacy Education and more particularly so far as the recognition of degrees and diplomas of Pharmacy Education is concerned, the Pharmacy Act, 1948 shall prevail

Law

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
FULL BENCH
SRI SAI RR INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY — Appellant
Vs.
DR. A.P.J. ABDUL KALAM TECHNICAL UNIVERSITY AND ANOTHER —
Respondent
( Before : R.F. Nariman, K.M. Joseph and B.R. Gavai, JJ. )
Writ Petition (C) No. 446 of 2021
Decided on : 06-07-2021
Education Law – Conditional affiliation to colleges for Academic Year 2020-2021 – In
the field of Pharmacy Education and more particularly so far as the recognition of
degrees and diplomas of Pharmacy Education is concerned, the Pharmacy Act, 1948
shall prevail – The norms and regulations set by the PCI and other specified authorities
under the Pharmacy Act would have to be followed by the concerned institutions
imparting education for degrees and diplomas in Pharmacy, including the norms and
regulations with respect to increase and/or decrease in intake capacity of the students
and the decisions of the PCI shall only be followed by the institutions imparting degrees
and diplomas in Pharmacy – Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) has granted approval to
both colleges with an intake capacity of 60 students each – State Government vide
Notification dated 19.3.2021 has granted conditional affiliation after considering the
recommendations made by the Affiliation Committee – University is therefore directed
to grant affiliation to Colleges for the Academic Year 202021 and also permit the
students of the Colleges to participate in the special examinations to be organized by the
University for the Academic Year 202021 in view of the Notification dated 19th March
2021 – Writ petitions are allowed.
Counsel for Appearing Parties
Ms. Anamika Agrawal, Advocate, Mr. Ajay K. Agrawal, Advocate, Mr. Ajit Sharma, Advocate, for the
Appellant; Mr. Amitesh Kumar, Advocate, Ms. Binisa Mohanty, Advocate, Ms. Priti Kumari, Advocate,
Mr. Mritunjay Kumar Sinha, Advocate, for the Respondent
Cases Referred
VIIT Pharmacy College and another vs. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University and
another), 2021 SCC Online SC 322
ORDER
B.R. Gavai, J. – Both these writ petitions filed by the petitioner – colleges seek various directions,
including the direction to respondent No. 1 – Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University
(hereinafter referred to as “the University”), i.e., to comply with Notification dated 19.3.2021 issued
by the State Government and grant conditional affiliation to the petitioner – colleges for Academic
Year 2020-2021; direction directing the University to organize special examinations for B. Pharma
students for Academic Year 2020-2021 in view of the aforesaid Notification dated 19.3.2021; and
direction to the University to permit students of the petitioner – colleges to participate in the special
examinations.
2. It is the contention of the petitioner – colleges that the facts in the present writ petitions are
identical with the facts in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 390 of 2021 (VIIT Pharmacy College and
another vs. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University and another), 2021 SCC Online SC
322 which was allowed by this Court vide order dated 15.4.2021.
3. Insofar as Writ Petition (Civil) No. 390 of 2021 is concerned, the University has not seriously
disputed that the facts in the present writ petitions are similar to that in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 390
of 2021. However, it is the contention of the University, taken for the first time in Writ Petition
(Civil) No. 448 of 2021 (Shri Badrinath College of Pharmacy vs. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical
University & Anr.), that the petitioner -Shri Badrinath College of Pharmacy did not participate in the
counselling process and as such, is not entitled to any relief. Another ground that has been taken is,
that there is a similar writ petition pending before the High Court filed by the petitioner – Shri
Badrinath College of Pharmacy with regard to the same relief.
4. We find, that the facts in both the present writ petitions are almost similar to facts in Writ Petition
(Civil) No. 390 of 2021 decided by this Court on 15.4.2021. In both cases, grant of affiliation was
denied by the University on the sole ground, that the timeline as prescribed by All India Council for
Technical Education (AICTE) had lapsed.
5. It is also not in dispute, that vide Notification dated 19.3.2021, the State Government after
considering the recommendations made by the Affiliation Committee has granted conditional
affiliation to the petitioner – colleges for admission in B. Pharma course in compliance with the order
of the High Court passed in Writ Petition No. 12536 of 2020.
6. The writ petitions have been filed by the petitioner -colleges since the University has refused to
grant affiliation to the petitioner – colleges and to permit their students to appear for First Year B.
Pharma examination.
7. This Court while allowing Writ Petition (Civil) No. 390 of 2021 has observed thus:
“9. This Court, in the case of, Dr. S.K. Toshiwal Educational Trusts Vidarbha Institute of
Pharmacy (supra), has held as under:-
“87. In view of the above and for the reasons stated above, it is held that in the field of
Pharmacy Education and more particularly so far as the recognition of degrees and
diplomas of Pharmacy Education is concerned, the Pharmacy Act, 1948 shall prevail. The
norms and regulations set by the PCI and other specified authorities under the Pharmacy
Act would have to be followed by the concerned institutions imparting education for
degrees and diplomas in Pharmacy, including the norms and regulations with respect to
increase and/or decrease in intake capacity of the students and the decisions of the PCI
shall only be followed by the institutions imparting degrees and diplomas in Pharmacy.
The questions are answered accordingly.”
10. Indisputably, in the present case, the PCI has granted approval to both the petitioners vide
order dated 10
th April 2020, with intake capacity of 100 and 60 admissions/students
respectively. Not only that, the petitions filed by the petitioners challenging the policy decision
of the State Government dated 15
th May 2020, have been allowed by the High Court vide
judgment and order dated 9
th November 2020. Indisputably, the State Government also vide
notification dated 19
th March 2021, has granted conditional affiliation after considering the
recommendations made by the Affiliation Committee. In the peculiar facts and circumstances of
the case and particularly, taking into consideration, that the averments made on affidavit by the
petitioners, are not controverted by the respondent No.1-University, we find that the petition
deserves to be allowed.”
8. As in the aforesaid case decided by order dated 15.4.2021, in the present case also the approval has
been granted by the Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) on 10.4.2021 to both the petitioner – colleges
with an intake capacity of 60 students each. The present petitioners have also filed the petitions
challenging the policy decision of the State Government dated 15.5.2020 before the High Court and
the same have been allowed by the High Court by judgments and orders dated 2.11.2020 and
10.11.2020. In the present case also, the State Government vide Notification dated 19.3.2021 has
granted conditional affiliation after considering the recommendations made by the Affiliation
Committee.
9. In the peculiar facts and circumstances of the case, particularly finding that the facts in both the
present cases are almost similar with the facts in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 390 of 2021, we are of the
view that the present petitioners are also entitled to the same relief as is granted by this Court in Writ
Petition (Civil) No. 390 of 2021.
10. We are therefore inclined to allow the petitions in the following terms:
The University is therefore directed to grant affiliation to the petitioner – Colleges for the
Academic Year 2020-21 and also permit the students of the petitioner – Colleges to participate
in the special examinations to be organized by the University for the Academic Year 2020-21 in
view of the Notification dated 19
th March 2021.
11. The writ petitions are allowed in the above terms.

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Supreme Court can adjudicate on divorce case originally in exceptional case.

Law

(2020) 1 AirKarR 687 : (2020) AIR(SC) 111 : (2020) AIR(SC)Civil 734 : (2020) 1 AndhLD 116 : (2020) 3
ApexCourtJudgments(SC) 301 : (2020) 2 CivCC 41 : (2020) 1 DMC 3 : (2019) 12 JT 350 : (2020) 1
LawHerald(SC) 94 : (2020) 3 MLJ 777 : (2020) 197 PLR 302 : (2020) 1 SCALE 10 : (2020) 1 SCJ 6
SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
DIVISION BENCH
MUNISH KAKKAR — Appellant
Vs.
NIDHI KAKKAR — Respondent
( Before : Sanjay Kishan Kaul and K.M. Joseph, JJ. )
Civil Appeal No. 9318 of 2014
Decided on : 17-12-2019
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 – Section 13(1)(ia) – Divorce on the ground of cruelty – It is no doubt true that
the divorce legislations in India are based on the ‘fault theory’, i.e., no party should take advantage of
his/her own fault, and that the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage, as yet, has not been
inserted in the divorce law, despite a debate on this aspect by the Law Commission in two reports – A
party, divorce was granted on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage, after examining various
judicial pronouncements. It has been noted that such powers are exercised not in routine, but in rare
cases, in view of the absence of legislation in this behalf, where it is found that a marriage is totally
unworkable, emotionally dead, beyond salvage and has broken down irretrievably. That was a case where
parties had been living apart for the last twenty-two (22) years and a re-union was found to be impossible
– This Court has also extended caution from time to time on this aspect, apart from noticing that it is
only this Court which can do so, in exercise of its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India. If
parties agree, they can always go back to the trial court for a motion by mutual consent, or this Court has
exercised jurisdiction at times to put the matter at rest quickly. But that has not been the only
circumstance in which a decree of divorce has been granted by this Court. In numerous cases, where a
marriage is found to be a dead letter, the Court has exercised its extraordinary power under Article 142 of
the Constitution of India to bring an end to it – Divorce granted.
Constitution of India, 1950 – Article 142 – Complete justice – Provisions of Article 142 of the
Constitution provide a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties,
i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus
to a dispute in a manner which would bet the facts of the case.
Counsel for Appearing Parties
Mr. Manoj Swarup, Advocate, Mr. Santosh Mishra, Advocate, Mr. Neewani Pant, Advocate, Ms. Vidisha Swarup,
Advocate, Mr. Ashok Anand, Advocate, Mr. Somnath Padhan, Advocate, Mr. Mukul Kumar, Advocate, for the Appellant;
Respondent-in-person (Not present)
Cases Referred
R. Srinivas Kumar vs. R. Shametha (2019) 9 SCC 409
JUDGMENT
Sanjay Kishan Kaul, J. – Marriages are said to be made in heaven. They are broken on earth. We are faced with a scenario where for the better part of almost two decades, the parties before us, who are husband and wife, have been engaged in multifarious litigation, including a divorce proceeding, which forms subject matter of the appeal before us.
2. The marriage between the parties was solemnized at Jalandhar according to Hindu rites on 23.4.2000, where apparently the family of the appellant was based. The family of the respondent is stated to have been based in Canada. It appears from the allegations that the constant period of stay of the parties was only for about two months, with the respondent moving back and forth, but, undisputedly on 24.5.2001, the respondent left for Canada to be with her family. It is the case of the appellant that this was not with his consent, while on the other hand it is the case of the respondent that she was making an endeavour for immigration of the appellant to Canada, and at his behest. The respondent did not return to India till 16.8.2002, which was soon after she obtained Canadian citizenship on 6.8.2002. It is also an admitted position that during this time, no papers were led with the Canadian authorities for immigration of the appellant and that the respondent puts the blame on incomplete papers sent by the appellant. As to why the papers could not be completed over such a long period of time is a moot point. It does appear that the respondent was apparently interested in Canadian citizenship and only after having achieved that, came back to India.
3. The parties resided for barely two and a half months together, when a ght is stated to have broken out between the parties and the respondent again left the company of the appellant. There was an intervention by the Panchayat and the parties were asked to reside separately from their family, in a rented accommodation, but that too did not last for more than a couple of months. The respondent is stated to have left the common residence on 15.4.2003 after an altercation and then again left for Canada.
4. The aforesaid resulted in the appellant ling a petition for divorce under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 on the ground of cruelty, on 16.5.2003.
5. It is the appellant’s case that he had reasonable apprehension about the safety of his life and limb, and that the respondent was really not interested in living with the appellant in India, away from Canada. The loneliness and lack of co-habitation is stated to have caused physical and mental torture. The appellant also sought to make out a case that the respondent was suffering from depression and was on medication. Despite the appellant’s stable job in India, the respondent kept on pressuring him to shift to Canada, and despite his reluctance he had signed the immigration papers in order to save his marriage. However, the papers were never submitted. In fact, he came to know that the respondent herself had reached Canada on improper travel documents and, thus, could not apply for the appellant’s immigration. It is the further submission of the appellant that all stridhan was taken away by the respondent in April, 2001 itself. The appellant has alleged that the respondent was extremely suspicious and maligned his character in front of his colleagues on the basis of alleged liaisons with his colleagues.
6. The respondent naturally had her own version and claimed to have travelled to Canada to meet his insistence of immigrating to Canada, though she admitted that she had not taken any documents of the appellant with her to Canada. She, in fact, blamed the appellant of abandoning her and made various other allegations including of dowry, physical assault and extra-marital affairs. In respect of her continued stay in Canada she claims to have had an “insect bite”! In her testimony, she claims that an unconsented abortion took place when she was taken to a doctor, though it is an admitted position that she never made a complaint in respect thereof. The version of the appellant is different, i.e., that she was taken for general medical treatment, and was in fact never pregnant.

7. The Additional District Judge, Nawanshahr vide judgment and order dated 9.12.2009, granted a decree of
divorce against which an appeal was led before the High Court. The learned Single Judge vide impugned order dated 10.2.2011, however, set aside the decree of divorce.
8. We may note here that the trial court’s view was predicated on inter alia the continued character assassination by the respondent of the appellant, since she had neither been able to prove any extra-marital affair of the appellant, nor could she prove the factum of forcible termination of pregnancy.
9. The learned Single Judge of the High Court, however, framed six primary grounds to examine the case for
dissolution of marriage. It is the nding in the impugned order that while the parties did stay apart, no sense of anger could be made out to display any real discord between the parties herein; though there were adjustment issues. The learned Judge took note of the allegations regarding extra-marital affairs made by one another,including the allegation of having a child out of the wedlock, but came to the conclusion that serious imputation could not be attached to the same. The same were attributed to “inamed passions”, which resulted in these grave suggestions; but were opined to not knock down the fundamental walls of marriage. It was concluded that neither party had transgressed the limits in making imputations regarding each other’s extra-marital affairs and, thus,this would not constitute cruelty. The aspect of physical assault alleged by the parties was also said not to have been established.
10. Insofar as the aspect of irretrievable breakdown of the marriage is concerned, it was opined that since that did not form part of statutory law in India, that could not be treated as a ground.
11. It is relevant to note that at various times there were efforts made to mediate the dispute, which failed.
Multiple efforts have been made even by this Court, but to no avail. In a last ditch effort, the parties were referred to a counselor after one of us, with the consent of the parties, had taken the matter in chambers. The counselor/psychologist, however, opined that the separation of sixteen (16) years since 2003 had made both the parties bitter and cynical about the relationship and there was no sign of any affection or bonding on either side. The parties apparently had no history of pleasant time and only feelings of resentment arising from the several court cases. There was also no family support from either side. This would also be apparent, in our view, from the fact that there are stated to be multiple cases led by both set of family members against the opposite party.
12. We had, thus, no option but to hear the parties at some length. Despite our query of whether the respondent would like to be assisted by a counsel, she refused the same and wanted to address the Court personally, having acquired a law degree herself.
13. We have given our deep thought to the matter and to the discussions in the trial court judgment and the High Court judgment. Learned single Judge appears to have brushed aside the allegations of extra marital affairs as also of a child out of the wedlock as part of the wear and tear of marriage and as “inamed passions.” The fact, however, remains that the relationship appears to have deteriorated to such an extent that both parties see little good in each other, an aspect supported by the counselor’s report; though the respondent insists that she wants to stay with the appellant. In our view, this insistence is only to somehow not let a decree of divorce be passed against the respondent. This is only to frustrate the endeavour of the appellant to get a decree of divorce, completely losing sight of the fact that matrimonial relationships require adjustments from both sides, and a willingness to stay together. The mere say of such willingness would not sufce.
14. It is no doubt true that the divorce legislations in India are based on the ‘fault theory’, i.e., no party should take advantage of his/her own fault, and that the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage, as yet, has not been inserted in the divorce law, despite a debate on this aspect by the Law Commission in two reports.
15. We, however, nd that there are various judicial pronouncements where this Court, in exercise of its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, has granted divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage; not only in cases where parties ultimately, before this Court, have agreed to do so but even otherwise.There is, thus, recognition of the futility of a completely failed marriage being continued only on paper.
16. We have noticed above that all endeavours have been made to persuade the parties to live together, which have not succeeded. For that, it would not be appropriate to blame one or the other party, but the fact is that nothing remains in this marriage. The counselor’s report also opines so. The marriage is a dead letter.

17. Much could be said about what the learned single Judge has observed as wear and tear of marriage and
“inamed passions”, but wisdom requires us to not traverse that same path, as we feel that, on the ground of
irretrievable breakdown of marriage, if this is not a t case to grant divorce, what would be a t case!
18. No doubt there is no consent of the respondent. But there is also, in real terms, no willingness of the parties,including of the respondent to live together. There are only bitter memories and angst against each other. This angst has got extended in the case of the respondent to somehow not permit the appellant to get a decree of divorce and “live his life”, forgetting that both parties would be able to live their lives in a better manner, separately, as both parties suffer from an obsession with legal proceedings, as reected from the submissions before us.
19. We may note that in a recent judgment of this Court, in R. Srinivas Kumar vs. R. Shametha (2019) 9 SCC 409 to which one of us (Sanjay Kishan Kaul, J.) is a party, divorce was granted on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage, after examining various judicial pronouncements. It has been noted that such powers are exercised not in routine, but in rare cases, in view of the absence of legislation in this behalf, where it is found that a marriage is totally unworkable, emotionally dead, beyond salvage and has broken down irretrievably. That was a case where parties had been living apart for the last twenty-two (22) years and a re-union was found to be impossible. We are conscious of the fact that this Court has also extended caution from time to time on this aspect, apart from noticing that it is only this Court which can do so, in exercise of its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India. If parties agree, they can always go back to the trial court for a motion by mutual consent, or this Court has exercised jurisdiction at times to put the matter at rest quickly. But that has not been the only circumstance in which a decree of divorce has been granted by this Court. In numerous cases, where a marriage is found to be a dead letter, the Court has exercised its extraordinary power under Article 142 of the Constitution of India to bring an end to it.
20. We do believe that not only is the continuity of this marriage fruitless, but it is causing further emotional
trauma and disturbance to both the parties. This is even reected in the manner of responses of the parties in the Court. The sooner this comes to an end, the better it would be, for both the parties. Our only hope is that with the end of these proceedings, which culminate in divorce between the parties, the two sides would see the senselessness of continuing other legal proceedings and make an endeavour to even bring those to an end.
21. The provisions of Article 142 of the Constitution provide a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do
“complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner which would bet the facts of the case. It is with this objective that we nd it appropriate to take recourse to this provision in the present case.
22. We are of the view that an end to this marriage would permit the parties to go their own way in life after
having spent two decades battling each other, and there can always be hope, even at this age, for a better life, if not together, separately.
23. We, thus, exercising our jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, grant a decree of divorce and dissolve the marriage inter se the parties forthwith.
24. The respondent is a qualied lawyer; she claims to have not gone back to her family in Canada, but stayed in India only to battle this litigation. The respondent is being paid Rs. 7,500 per month by the appellant. With a law degree she would be able to meet her needs better, though she claims that her sole concentration has been on the inter se dispute. Be that as it may, we are of the view that the maintenance of Rs. 7,500 per month should be continued to be paid by the appellant to the respondent, and it is open for the parties to move appropriate proceedings for either enhancement of this maintenance or reduction and cessation thereof. We only hope that this aspect can also be reconciled between the parties once a decree of divorce is granted.
25. The appeal is allowed leaving the parties to bear their own costs.

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Wife living separately not entitled for relief of domestic violence

LawyerServices

 

Kuldeep Singh & Others v/s Rekha

 

    M.Cr.C. No. 5644 of 2016

 

    Decided On, 18 June 2019

    At, High Court of Madhya Pradesh

    By, THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE S.K. AWASTHI

    For the Applicants: R.S. Raghuvanshi, Learned Counsel. For the Respondent: Prateek Maheshwari, Learned Counsel.

 

Judgment Text

1. Applicants have filed present petition under section 482 of Cr.P.C., 1973 for quashing the proceedings of criminal Case No. 14942/2015 under section 12 of Protection of Women From Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (in short DV Act) pending before Judicial Magistrate First Class, Indore.

2. It is not disputed that the marriage of the applicant No.1 and respondent No.1 was solemnized on 23.11.2010. Out of their wedlock they are blessed with a daughter Ku. Trisha (respondent No.2). The applicant No.2 is the father of the applicant No.1 and he is employee of Central Government and presently posted Deputy Registrar in Laxmi Bai National University of Physical Education, Gwalior. The applicant No.3 is wife of applicant No.2, whereas the applicant No.4 is younger brother of the applicant No.1 and he is in private service and lives in Gurgaon. Applicant No.5 is grand father of the applicant No.1 and applicant No.7 and 8 are aunties (Mosi) of the applicant No.1.

3. The facts of the case are that on 20.04.2015 the respondent No.1 filed a complaint against the applicants under Section 12 of DV Act before the court of Judicial Magistrate First Class, Indore alleging that in the marriage the parents of the respondent No.1 has given Rs. 8,50,000/- cash, gold and silver ornaments and other households articles as dowry. Although the applicants are not satisfied with the aforesaid dowry and after the marriage they started making demand of Rs. 22,000,00/- for purchasing fortuner car. On 20.09.2012 the applicants ousted her from the matrimonial house and since then she is living at Indore in her parental house alongwith her daughter (respondent No.2). She has also filed an application under section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act for restitution of conjugal rights before the Court of Principal Judge, Family Court Gwalior. During the proceedings of reconciliation she expressed her willingness to live with the applicant No.1 but he refused to keep her, therefore, she was compelled to file this complaint under Section 12 of DV Act. before the Judicial Magistrate First Class, Indore in which she made prayer for grant of Rs. 20,000/- for herself and Rs. 10,000/- for respondent No.2 as maintenance from the applicants. Being aggrieved by the aforesaid complaint, applicants filed this petition for quashment of the complaint.

4. Learned counsel for the applicants has submitted that at the time of marriage applicant No.1 husband of the respondent No.1 was working in Private Job at Indore and after few weeks of marriage, the respondent No.1 was also living at Indore with applicant No.1 where she was also working as Design Engineer in Shakti Pumps Pvt. Ltd at Pithampur. It is further contended that after a week of marriage the respondent No.1 started behaving abnormally on the grounds that she is an engineer whereas her husband is not having same status and she will not get job in Gwalior, therefore, she does not want to live any more in Gwalior. She also started abusing the applicant No.1 to 3 without any reason. After few weeks she shifted to Indore and resided their with the applicant No.1. It is also alleged that the respondent No.1 does not want to live with the applicant stating that she has solemnized the marriage with applicant No.1 under the pressure of her parents and as such she was not willing to marry with applicant No.1 because she loved someone else before marriage and therefore demanded that she be left at her paternal home. Hence, the applicant had no choice but to take her to her paternal house at Indore. Accordingly, she left her matrimonial house on or about 2012 and went to Indore. When the applicant No.1 and 3 contacted the respondent No.1 and her parents to solve this issue, the respondent No.1 alongwith her parents abused applicant No.2 and 3 in a very filthy language and also criminally intimated them. They demanded Rs. 10,00,000/- for divorce of respondent No.1 by mutual consent else they will falsely implicated the applicant and his family member in dowry case. However, the applicant No.1 and 3 refused to accede to such illegal demand of money of respondent No.1. They also made a written complaint at Police Station Gole Ka Mandir, Gwalior on 10.06.2012 against the respondent No.1 and her parents but police did not register the FIR in this regard. The applicant No.1 to 3 filed a private complaint on 11.06.2012 before the Court of Judicial Magistrate First Class, Gwalior, which is still pending. It has also been submitted that latter on respondent No.1 again joined the matrimonial house at Delhi where applicant No.1 was working another job since 27.11.2012. Parents of respondent No.1 also came at their and live for few days during this they pressurizing the applicant No.1 for divorce by mutual consent and demanded Rs. 10,000,00/-, when he refused to do that then they left the house of the applicant No.1. Then applicant No.1 has filed an application for restitution of conjugal rights against the respondent No.1 at Gwalior, which was latter on transferred to Family Court at Indore however, due to non non-cooperating conduct of the respondent No.1 he withdrawn the aforesaid application. Meanwhile, the respondent No.1 lodged FIR under Section 498-A against the applicant No.1 and his family members. In the month of August 2013. The respondent No.1 filed an application under section 125 of Cr.P.C., 1973 for maintenance against the applicant No.1 at Family Court Indore in which she has not made any allegation against the respondent No.4 to 8 regarding demand of Rs. 22,00,000/- for purchasing of fortuner car. On 20.04.2015, the respondent No.1 filed the present complaint under Section 12 of DV Act with intent to harass the applicant. It is further submitted that the applicant No.2 and 3 are residing at Gwalior, applicant No.4 is in private service for past many years and he is living in Gurgaon. The applicant No.7 and 8 aunties (Mosi) of the applicant No.1, are married and having their own family and they are living separately in Mathura (U.P.). The applicant No.5 is the grand father of the applicant and he is also residing separately, therefore, the domestic relationship do not exists amongst them, thus, the complaint filed by the respondent No.1 under D.V. Act is not maintainable against the applicant Nos. 2 to 8, hence, he prayed for quashment of criminal complaint pending before the Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Indore.

5. Learned counsel for the respondent opposes the prayer made by the applicants by contending that complaint made by the respondent against the applicants at very initial stage and at this stage it cannot be said that no domestic relationship was exist between the respondent No.1 and applicants. It is further submitted that while exercising the inherent power under section 482 of Cr.P.C., 1973 for quashing the proceeding only allegation in the complaint are to be taken into consideration without giving any opportunity to adduce the evidence to the respondent, hence no question arises for quashment of the proceeding. As per contents of the complaint, applicants persistently demanded Rs. 22,000,00/- for purchasing the furtuner car and they physically and mentally harassed her, therefore, it cannot be said that no domestic relationship amongst the respondent No.1 and applicant No.2 to 8 is exist at any point of time. The respondent is entitled for getting claim from the applicants under Section 19 of D.V. Act and the applicants are also guilt for domestic violence, which they have committed against the respondent while she was residing with them, therefore, petition filed by the applicants be dismissed with cost.

6. Having heard learned counsel for the parties and perused the records.

7. From the averments made in the complaint filed by the respondent No.1 under Section 12 of D.V. Act, it appears that respondent got married with the Kuldeep son of respondent No.2 and 3 on 23.11.2012. After the marriage the respondent No.1 came to her matrimonial house situated at Gwalior and resided with the family members of her husband. Although, it is alleged by the applicant No.1 and respondent No.1 that they lived altogether in Gwalior for a very short time. After few weeks of the marriage the respondent No.1 lived in Indore with the applicant No.1 as he was in private Job at Indore and respondent No.1 was also working at Design Engineer in Shakti Pumps Pvt. Ltd at Pithampur. The respondent No.1 and applicant No.1 moved out their joint family and established their own households at Indore, Raipur and Delhi, therefore, at this stage it cannot be said that no domestic relationship was exist between the applicant No.1 to 3 and respondent No.1. From the complaint filed by the respondent under Section 12 of DV Act, it appears that the applicant No.1 to 3 were residing at Bungalow No.70, L.N.U.P.E Campus, Rescourse Road, Shakti Nagar, Gwalior (M.P.) whereas applicant No.5 grand father of the applicant is residing at Shinde Ki Chhavni, Khallasipura, Behind D.D. Mall, Gwalior (M.P.) and applicant No.7 and 8 are residing at Dempier Road, Bahadurpur, Mathura (U.P.) and Braj Nagar, near Krishna Nagar, Mathura (U.P.), thus, it is clear that the applicant No.5, 7 and 8 are residing separately with the applicant No.1 and respondent No.1, therefore, it cannot be accepted that they were also sharing the households with the respondent No.1, hence, if the averments made in the complaint had accepted at their entirety, even then the complaint filed against by the respondent No.1 against the applicant No. 5 to 8 is not maintainable at all. Although, it is alleged that applicant No.3 is residing at Bungalow No.70, L.N.U.P.E Campus, Rescourse Road, Shakti Nagar, Gwalior (M.P.) and he also harassed the respondent No.1 for making demand of Rs. 22,000,00/- for purchasing fortuner car, however, no such allegation was made by the respondent in the petition filed by her under section 125 of Cr.P.C., 1973 against the applicant. In the said application the allegation of demand of dowry and harassment has been made against the applicant No.1.

8. From perusal of the records, it appears that on 20.04.2015, the respondent No.1 made a written complaint to the Station House Officer-Mahila Thana, Indore alleging that after the marriage, her husband – Kuldeep, father-in-law, mother-in-law and brother in law started making demand of Rs. 22,000,00/- for purchasing of fortuner car and ill-treated her. In the report, it is stated that in the year 2011 her husband got job at Tresure Island, Indore and in the year 2012 her husband shifted Delhi and they started living there. When they were living at Indore and Delhi, applicant No.2 and 3 came there and demanded Rs. 22,000,00/- and harassed her. The aforesaid documents clearly established that after sometime of the marriage, respondent No.1 and her husband moved out joint family and established their own households at Indore and Delhi. It is alleged that the applicant No.2 and 3 used to visit at Indore and Delhi and they reiterated the respondent No.1 with regard to dowry. In this regard the provision of Domestic Violence Act is to be taken into account. Under the Domestic Violence Act the first per-condition is that the applicant must be an aggrieved person is a person defined in Section 2(a) of the Act. The domestic relationship must be there between the aggrieved person and respondent to invoke Domestic Violence Act.

9. The Delhi High Court in the case of Vijay Verma v. State of NCT of Delhi & Anr., reported in 2010 (118) DRJ 520, which is also relied by this Court in M.Cr.C.No.9246/2014, the para of 5, 6 and 7 of the aforesaid Judgement is as under:

5. Filing of a petition under Protection of Women from by the petitioner taking shelter of domestic relationship and domestic violence needs to be considered so that this Act is not misused to settle property disputes. Domestic reDomestic Violence Actlationship is defined under the Act in Section 2(f) as under:

“(f) ‘domestic relationship’ means a relationship between two persons who live or have, at any point of time, lived together in a shared household, when they are related by consanguinity, marriage, or through a relationship in the nature of marriage, adoption or are family members living together as a joint family.”

6. A perusal of this provision makes it clear that domestic relationship arises in respect of an aggrieved person if the aggrieved person had lived together with the respondent in a shared household. This living together can be either soon before filing of petition or ‘at any point of time’. The problem arises with the meaning of phrase “at any point of time”. Does that mean that living together at any stage in the past would give right to a person to become aggrieved person to claim domestic relationship? I consider that “at any point of time” under the Act only means where an aggrieved person has been continuously living in the shared household as a matter of right but for some reason the aggrieved person has to leave the house temporarily and when she returns, she is not allowed to enjoy her right to live in the property. However, “at any point of time” cannot be defined as “at any point of time in the past” whether the right to live survives or not. For example if there is a joint family where father has several sons with daughters-in-law living in a house and ultimately sons, one by one or together, decide that they should live separate with their own families and they establish separate household and start living with their respective families separately at different places; can it be said that wife of each of the sons can claim a right to live in the house of father-inlaw because at one point of time she along with her husband had lived in the shared household. If this meaning is given to the shared household then the whole purpose of Domestic Violence Act shall stand defeated. Where a family member leaves the shared household to establish his own household, and actually establishes his own household, he cannot claim to have a right to move an application under section 12 of Protection of Women From Domestic Violence Act on the basis of domestic relationship. Domestic relationship comes to an end once the son along with his family moved out of the joint family and established his own household or when a daughter gets married and establishes her own household with her husband. Such son, daughter, daughter-in-law, son-in-law, if they have any right in the property say because of coparcenary or because of inheritance, such right can be claimed by an independent civil suit and an application under Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act cannot be filed by a person who has established his separate household and ceased to have a domestic relationship. Domestic relationship continues so long as the parties live under the same roof and enjoy living together in a shared household. Only a compelled or temporarily going out by aggrieved person shall fall in phrase ‘at any point of time’, say, wife has gone to her parents house or to a relative or some other female member has gone to live with her some relative, and, all her articles and belongings remain within the same household and she has not left the household permanently, the domestic relationship continues. However, where the living together has been given up and a separate household is established and belongings are removed, domestic relationship comes to an end and a relationship of being relatives of each other survives. This is very normal in families that a person whether, a male or a female attains self sufficiency after education or otherwise and takes a job lives in some other city or country, enjoys life there, settles home there. He cannot be said to have domestic relationship with the persons whom he left behind. His relationship that of a brother and sister, father and son, father and daughter, father and daughter-in-law etc survives but the domestic relationship of living in a joint household would not survive & comes to an end.

7. This meaning of domestic relationship has sense when we come to definition of domestic violence and the purpose of the Act. The purpose of the Act is to give remedy to the aggrieved persons against domestic violence. The domestic violence can take place only when one is living in shared household with the respondents. The acts of abuses, emotional or economic, physical or sexual, verbal or nonverbal if committed when one is living in the same shared household constitute domestic violence. However, such acts of violence can be committed even otherwise also when one is living separate. When such acts of violence take place when one is living separate, these may be punishable under different provisions of IPC or other penal laws, but, they cannot be covered under Domestic Violence Act. One has to make distinction between violence committed on a person living separate in a separate household and the violence committed on a person living in the shared household. Only violence committed by a person while living in the shared household can constitute domestic violence. A person may be threatening another person 100 miles away on telephone or by messages etc. This may amount to an offence under IPC, but, this cannot amount to domestic violence. Similarly, emotional blackmail, economic abuse and physical abuse can take place even when persons are living miles away. Such abuses are not covered under Domestic Violence Act but they are liable to be punished under Penal laws. Domestic Violence is a violence which is committed when parties are in domestic relationship, sharing same household and sharing all the household goods with an opportunity to commit violence. 10. This Court has carefully gone through the complaint preferred under Section 12 of the DV Act, and in the considered opinion of this Court, that in the present case, after sometime of the marriage the respondent gone with her husband leaves the share households to establish their own households at Indore and Delhi, and as a result domestic relationship comes to an end, therefore proceedings based upon the complaint initiated in the matter pending before the Judicial Magistrate, First Class-Indore is not maintainable against the applicant No.2 to 8 and deserves to be quashed. 11. In view of the above, the present petition filed under section 482 of Cr.P.C., 1973 is hereby allowed in part and the proceedings of criminal 14942/2015 pending before the Judicial Magistrate First Class, Indore under D.V. Act with respect to applicant No. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 8 (Mahendra Pratap Singh, Smt. Meera Singh, Yashdeep Singh, Balkrishna Singh,, Smt. Vijaya Laxmi, Smt. Babita) is hereby quashed whereas present petition is dismissed with respect to applicant No.1- Kuldeep Singh. Let a copy of this order be sent to concerned trial court for information and necessary compliance.

 

 

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District Forum has no power to extend the time to file the response to the complaint beyond the period of 15 days in addition to 30 days as is envisaged under Section 13 of the Act

Law

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
DIVISION BENCH
M/S DADDY’S BUILDERS PRIVATE LIMITED AND ANOTHER — Appellant
Vs.
MANISHA BHARGAVA AND ANOTHER — Respondent
( Before : Dr. Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud and M.R. Shah, JJ. )
Petition for Special Leave to Appeal (Civil) No. 1240 of 2021
Decided on : 11-02-2021
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 – Section 13 – Procedure on admission of Complaint –
Condonation of delay – Delay in filing of the written statement – Beyond the period of 45
days – Written statement is required to be filed within 30 days and the same can be
extended by a further period of 15 days – District Forum has no power to extend the
time to file the response to the complaint beyond the period of 15 days in addition to 30
days as is envisaged under Section 13 of the Act – As rightly observed by the National
Commission, there was no mandate that in all the cases where the written statement was
submitted beyond the stipulated period of 45 days, the delay must be condoned and the
written statement must be taken on record – Appeal Dismissed.
Counsel for Appearing Parties
Mr. Ashish Choudhary, Advocate, Mr. Shivam Bajaj, Advocate, Mr. Dhruv Surana, Advocate, Mr. Rohit
Amit Sthalekar, for the Appellant.
Cases Referred
J.J. Merchant v. Shrinath Chaturvedi, reported in (2002) 6 SCC 635
New India Assurance company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Private Limited,
reported in (2020) 5 SCC 757
New India Assurance Company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Pvt. Ltd. (2020) 5
SCC 757
New India Assurance Company Limited v. HUH Multipurpose Cold Storage Private Limited,
reported in (2015) 16 SCC 20
New India Assurance Company Limited v. HUH Multipurpose Cold Storage Pvt. Ltd. reported
in (2020) 5 SCC 757
ORDER
M.R. Shah, J. – Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the impugned order dated 04.09.2020 passed
by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, New Delhi (hereinafter referred to as the
‘National Commission’) in First Appeal No. 1999/2018, by which the National Commission has
dismissed the said appeal confirming the order passed by the Karnataka State Consumer Disputes
Redressal Commission (hereinafter referred to as the ‘State Commission’) dated 26.09.2018 rejecting
the application filed by the petitioners herein seeking condonation of delay in filing the written
version/written statement to the consumer complaint, original respondent nos. 1 & 2-petitioners
herein have preferred the present special leave petition.

2. By order dated 26.09.2018, the State Commission rejected the application filed by the petitioners
herein seeking condonation of delay in filing the written statement/written version to the consumer
complaint. It is not in dispute that the written version/written statement was filed beyond the
prescribed period of limitation provided under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (hereinafter
referred to as the ‘Act’), i.e., beyond the period of 45 days. It is not in dispute that as per the
provisions of the Act, the written version/written statement is required to be filed within 30 days and
the same can be extended by a further period of 15 days. The order passed by the State Commission
came to be confirmed by the National Commission. Hence, the present special leave petition.
3. Shri Ashish Choudhary, learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the petitioners has vehemently
submitted that it is true that as per the decision of the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of
New India Assurance company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Private Limited,
reported in (2020) 5 SCC 757, the District Forum has no power to extend the time to file the
response to the complaint beyond the period of 15 days in addition to 30 days as is envisaged under
Section 13 of the Act. It is submitted that however as observed in paragraph 63, the said judgment
shall be applicable prospectively only. Therefore, it is the case on behalf of the petitioners that the
aforesaid decision shall not be applicable retrospectively, and more particularly to the complaints
filed before the said decision. It is submitted that in the present case the application for condition of
delay came up for consideration before the State Commission on 26.09.2018 and on that date there
was a judgment of this Court in the case of Reliance General Insurance Co. Ltd. v. M/s Mampee
Timbers & Hardwares Pvt. Ltd. (Diary No. 2365 of 2017 decided on 10.02.2017) directing the
consumer fora to accept the written statement beyond the stipulated time of 45 days in an appropriate
case, on suitable terms, including the payment of costs and to proceed with the matter, keeping in
view the fact that the judgment of this Court in the case of New India Assurance Company
Limited v. HUH Multipurpose Cold Storage Private Limited, reported in (2015) 16 SCC 20 has
been referred to a larger Bench. Therefore, it is the case on behalf of the petitioners that the State
Commission ought to have condoned the delay in filing the written statement/written version to the
consumer complaint.
4. Having heard learned counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioners and so far as the question
whether the date on which the State Commission passed the order, then on that date, whether the
State Commission has the power to condone the delay beyond 45 days for filing the written statement
under Section 13 of the Act is concerned, as such, the said issue whether the State Commission has
the power to condone the delay beyond 45 days is now not resintegra in view of the Constitution
Bench decision of this Court in the case of New India Assurance Company Limited v. HUH
Multipurpose Cold Storage Pvt. Ltd. reported in (2020) 5 SCC 757. However, it is submitted by
the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioners that as in paragraph 63 it is observed that
the said judgment shall be applicable prospectively and therefore the said decision shall not be
applicable to the complaint which was filed prior to the said judgment and/or the said decision shall
not be applicable to the application for condonation of delay filed before the said decision.
However, the aforesaid cannot be accepted. It is required to be noted that as per the decision of this
Court in the case of J.J. Merchant v. Shrinath Chaturvedi, reported in (2002) 6 SCC 635, which
was a three Judge Bench decision, consumer fora has no power to extend the time for filing a
reply/written statement beyond the period prescribed under the Act. However, thereafter, despite the
above three Judge Bench decision, a contrary view was taken by a two Judge Bench and therefore the
matter was referred to the five Judge Bench and the Constitution Bench has reiterated the view taken
in the case of J.J. Merchant (supra) and has again reiterated that the consumer fora has no power
and/or jurisdiction to accept the written statement beyond the statutory period prescribed under the
Act, i.e., 45 days in all. However, it was found that in view of the order passed by this Court in
Reliance General Insurance Co. Ltd. (supra) dated 10.02.2017, pending the decision of the larger
Bench, in some of the cases, the State Commission might have condoned the delay in filing the
written statement filed beyond the stipulated time of 45 days and all those orders condoning the delay
and accepting the written statements shall not be affected, this Court observed in paragraph 63 that
the decision of the Constitution Bench shall be applicable prospectively. We say so because one of us
was a party to the said decision of the Constitution Bench.
5. Now so far as the reliance placed upon the order passed by this Court dated 10.02.2017 in the case
of Reliance General Insurance Co. Ltd. (supra) is concerned, the same has been dealt with in detail
by the National Commission by the impugned order while deciding the first appeal. As rightly
observed by the National Commission, there was no mandate that in all the cases where the written
statement was submitted beyond the stipulated period of 45 days, the delay must be condoned and
the written statement must be taken on record. In order dated 10.02.2017, it is specifically mentioned
that it will be open to the concerned fora to accept the written statement filed beyond the stipulated
period of 45 days in an appropriate case, on suitable terms, including the payment of costs and to
proceed with the matter. Therefore, ultimately, it was left to the concerned fora to accept the written
statement beyond the stipulated period of 45 days in an appropriate case. As observed by the
National Commission that despite sufficient time granted the written statement was not filed within
the prescribed period of limitation. Therefore, the National Commission has considered the aspect of
condonation of delay on merits also. In any case, in view of the earlier decision of this Court in the
case of JJ. Merchant (supra) and the subsequent authoritative decision of the Constitution Bench of
this Court in the case of New India Assurance Company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold
Storage Pvt. Ltd. (2020) 5 SCC 757, consumer fora has no jurisdiction and/or power to accept the
written statement beyond the period of 45 days, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned
order passed by the learned National Commission.
6. In view of the above and for the reasons stated hereinabove, the present special leave petition
deserves to be dismissed and is accordingly dismissed.

 

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Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 – Sections 79 – Bar of jurisdiction – Consumer complaint by allottee against builder – Section 79 of the RERA Act does not in any way bar the Commission or Forum under the provisions of the CP Act to entertain any complaint.

Law

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
DIVISION BENCH
M/S. IMPERIA STRUCTURES LIMITED — Appellant
Vs.
ANIL PATNI AND ANOTHER — Respondent
( Before : Uday Umesh Lalit and Vineet Saran, JJ. )
Civil Appeal No. 3581-3590 of 2020 (@Civil Appeal Diary No. 9796 of 2019) and Civil Appeal No. 3591 of
2020 (@Civil Appeal Diary No. 9793 of 2019)
Decided on : 02-11-2020
A. Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 – Sections 79 – Bar of
jurisdiction – Consumer complaint by allottee against builder – Section 79 of the RERA
Act does not in any way bar the Commission or Forum under the provisions of the CP
Act to entertain any complaint.
B. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 – Sections 12(4) and 23 – Real Estate (Regulation
and Development) Act, 2016 – Sections 79 and 71(1) – Bar of jurisdiction – Section 79 of
the RERA Act does not in any way bar the Commission or Forum under the provisions
of the CP Act to entertain any complaint – Proviso to Section 71(1) of the RERA Act
entitles a complainant who had initiated proceedings under the CP Act before the
RERA Act came into force, to withdraw the proceedings under the CP Act with the
permission of the Forum or Commission and file an appropriate application before the
adjudicating officer under the RERA Act – Proviso thus gives a right or an option to the
concerned complainant but does not statutorily force him to withdraw such complaint
nor do the provisions of the RERA Act create any mechanism for transfer of such
pending proceedings to authorities under the RERA Act. As against that the mandate in
Section 12(4) of the CP Act to the contrary is quite significant – Again, insofar as cases
where such proceedings under the CP Act are initiated after the provisions of the RERA
Act came into force, there is nothing in the RERA Act which bars such initiation. The
absence of bar under Section 79 to the initiation of proceedings before a fora which
cannot be called a Civil Court and express saving under Section 88 of the RERA Act,
make the position quite clear. Further, Section 18 itself specifies that the remedy under
said Section is “without prejudice to any other remedy available”. Thus, the
parliamentary intent is clear that a choice or discretion is given to the allottee whether
he wishes to initiate appropriate proceedings under the CP Act or file an application
under the RERA Act.
C. Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 – Sections 79 and 71(1) – Bar
of jurisdiction – It is true that some special authorities are created under the RERA Act
for the regulation and promotion of the real estate sector and the issues concerning a
registered project are specifically entrusted to functionaries under the RERA Act – But
for the present purposes, This Court must go by the purport of Section 18 of the RERA
Act. Since it gives a right “without prejudice to any other remedy available”
, in effect,such other remedy is acknowledged and saved subject always to the applicability of
Section 79.
Counsel for Appearing Parties
Mr. Simranjeet Singh, Advocate, Ms. Rea Dube, Advocate, Mr. Gautam Talukdar, Advocate for the
Appellant; Respondent-in-person Ms. Priyanjali Singh, Advocate, Mr. Rahul Rathore, Advocate, Mr.
Karunesh Kumar Shukla, Advocate for the Respondent
Cases Referred
Bharat Bank Ltd. vs. Employees, AIR 1950 SC 188 : 1950 SCR 459
Emaar MGF Ltd and anr. vs. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751
Fair Air Engineers (P) Ltd. vs. N.K. Modi, (1996) 6 SCC 385
Kishore Lal vs. ESI Corpn., (2007) 4 SCC 579
Malay Kumar Ganguli vs. Dr. Sukumar Mukherjee, (2009) 9 SCC 221
Nahar Industrial Enterprises Ltd. vs. Hong Kong & Shanghai Banking Corpn., (2009) 6 SCC
635
National Seeds Corporation Limited vs. M. Madhusudhan Reddy and another, (2012) 2 SCC
506
Pioneer Urban Land and Infrastructure Limited and another vs. Union of India and another,
(2019) 8 SCC 416
Secretary, Thirumurugan Cooperative Agricultural Credit Society vs. M. Lalitha (dead) through
LRs. and others, (2004) 1 SCC 305
Skypak Couriers Ltd. vs. Tata Chemicals Ltd., (2000) 5 SCC 294
Trans Mediterranean Airways vs. Universal Exports, (2011) 10 SCC 316
Virender Jain vs. Alaknanda Cooperative Group Housing Society Limited and others, (2013) 9
SCC 383
JUDGMENT
Uday Umesh Lalit, J. – These appeals[1] under Section 23 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
(hereinafter referred to as “the CP Act”) are directed against the common judgement and order dated
12.09.2018 passed by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, New Delhi
(hereinafter referred to as “the Commission”) in Consumer Case Nos.3011, 3012, 3013, 3014, 3015,
3016, 3017, 3018, 3019 and 3020 of 2017. The relevant facts leading to the filing of the aforesaid
Consumer Cases are almost identical and for the present purposes the facts leading to the filing of
Consumer Case No.3011 of 2017 are set out in detail and the appeal arising therefrom is taken as the
lead appeal. The connected appeal[2] seeks to challenge the judgment and order dated 09.08.2018
passed by the Commission in Consumer Case No. 1605 of 2017 and raises same issues of fact and
law. Delay in filing these appeals is condoned.
[1] Arising out of Civil Appeal Diary No. 9796 of 2019
[2] Arising out of Civil Appeal Diary No. 9793 of 2019
2. A Housing Scheme called “The ESFERA” in Sector 13C, Gurgaon, Haryana (hereinafter referred
to as ‘the Project’) was launched by the Appellant sometime in 2011 and all the original Complainants
booked their respective apartments by paying the booking amounts and thereafter each of them
executed Builder Buyer Agreement (hereinafter referred to as “the Agreement”) with the Appellant.
3. The Respondents in the leading appeal (hereinafter referred to as “the Respondents”) booked
Apartment No. 1803 on the 18
th Floor of Tower No. “C” having super built up area 153.34 Sq.
meters (1650 Sq. feet approx.) @ Rs.36530.2 per Sq. meter (Rs.3395/- per Sq. foot). The basic price
was thus Rs.56,01,750/- to which additional charges such as preferential location charges for
“corner” “park facing” and for “higher floor” as well as charges for reserve parking, club membership
and development were added; the aggregate price being Rs.76,43,000/-. 4. Clauses 11.1 and 11.2 of
the Agreement dated 30.11.2013 entered into by the Respondents dealt with “delay due to reasons
beyond the control of the Developer/Company” and “failure to deliver possession due to Government
Rules, Orders, Notifications, etc.” respectively. Clause 11.4 of the Agreement was:-
“11.4 FAILURE TO DELIVER POSSESSION: REMEDY TO THE COMPANY
The intending Allottee(s) agrees that in consequence of the Developer/Company abandoning the
Scheme or becoming unable to give possession within three years from the date of execution of
this Agreement to such extended periods as permitted under this Agreement, the
Developer/Company shall be entitled to terminate this Agreement whereupon the
Developer/Company’s liability shall be limited to the refund of the amounts paid by the
Intending Allottee(s) with simple interest @ 9% per annum for the period such amounts we
relying with the Developer/Company and to pay no other compensation whatsoever. However,
the Developer/Company may, at its sole option and discretion, decide not to terminate this
Agreement in which event the Developer/Company agrees to pay only to the original Intending
Allottee(s) and not to anyone else and only in cases other than those provided in Clauses 11.1,
11.2, 11.3 and Clause 41 and subject to the Intending Allottee(s) not being in default under any
term of this Agreement, compensation @ Rs.5/- per sq. ft. equal to Rs.53.8/- Per Sq. Meter of
the super area of the said Apartment per month for the period of such delay beyond three & half
years or such extended periods as permitted under this Agreement. The adjustment of such
compensation shall be done only at the time of settling the final accounts for handing
over/conveyancing the said Apartment to the intending Allottee(s) first named in this
Agreement and not earlier.”
Clause 41 of the Agreement was as under:-
“41. FORCE MAJURE
“The Developer/Company shall not be held responsible or liable for not performing any of its
obligations or undertakings provided for in this Agreement if such performance is prevented,
delayed or hindered by an act of God, fire, flood, explosion, war, riot, terrorist acts, sabotage,
inability to procure or general shortage of energy, labour, equipment, facilities, materials or
supplies, failure of transportation, strikes, lock outs, action of labour unions or any other cause
(whether similar or dissimilar to the foregoing) not within the reasonable control of the
Developer/Company.”
5. On 01.05.2016, the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (hereinafter referred to
as, “the RERA Act”) came into force.
6. Over a period of time the Respondents had paid Rs.63,53,625/- out of the agreed sum of
Rs.76,43,000/-. However, even after four years there were no signs of the Project getting completed.
In the circumstances Consumer Case No.3011 of 2017 was preferred by the Respondents on
11.10.2017 before the Commission submitting, inter alia,:-
“11. That the complainants regularly visited the site but were surprised to see that the
construction was never in progress. No one was present on the site to address the queries of the
buyers/allotees/purchases including the present complainant. The O.P despite taking a
substantial amount towards the consideration deliberately did not construct the towers in which
house of the complainant was situated. The entire site seems to be an abandoned piece of land
with semi constructed structure. Despite a delay of many months, the construction of the
apartment has not been completed. It can hence be seen that the O.P is deficient in renderings
services and after extracting most of the money from the buyers/allotees/purchases have
deliberately stopped the construction of the houses.

12. That it could be seen that the construction of the residential unit ‘THE ESFERA’ in which
the buyers/allotees/purchasers flats were booked many months back, with a promise by the O.P.
to deliver the same within 42 months were never completed for the reasons best known to the
O.P., which clearly shows the ulterior motive of the O.P. to extract money from the innocent
buyers fraudulently and also demonstrates the unfair trade practices and restrictive trade
practices under the ambit of consumer protection act 1986.
16. That as per the clause 11.4 of the Buyer’s Agreement, it was agreed by the O.P. that in case
of any delay, the O.P. shall pay to the buyers/allotees/purchasers, a compensation at the rate of
Rs.5/- per sq. ft. per month for the period of the delay. It could be seen here that the O.P has
incorporated the Clause 11.4 in the one sided buyer’s agreement and has offered to pay a meagre
sum of Rs.5/-per square feet for every month of delay if we calculate the amount in terms of
financial charges, it comes to approximate @ 1.4% per annum rate of interest. Even these
charges are to be paid after 42 months of period that is taken by the O.P to construct the houses
as per the buyer’s agreement. This shows that the O.P. has found a cheap source of funding the
commercial projects from the hard earned savings and borrowed money of innocent residential
apartments/house buyers like the present complainants. The O.P is raising funds at the interest
rate of mere 1.4% per annum and that too with initial 42 months of interest free duration.
30. That the value of goods/services along with compensation claimed in the present complaint
is above one crore rupees hence the complainants are entitled to invoke the pecuniary
jurisdiction of this Hon’ble Commission. The present complaint has been assessed for a sum of
Rs.1,16,94,579/- and requisite fee i.e. Rs.5000/-by way of a demand draft payable to “THE
REGISTRAR, NCDRC New Delhi” is being paid with this complaint.
Value of goods and
services
Rs.76,43,000/-
Compensation
claimed
Rs.40,51,579/-
32. In view of the above, it is, therefore, most respectfully prayed that this Hon’ble Commission
may kindly be pleaed to:
a. Direct the O.P. to refund the entire amount collected form the complainants towards the
consideration of the Flat along with interest @ 18% p.a. on the amount paid by them from
the date of each deposit of the amount till it is actually returned to the complaints.
b. Direct the O.P. to pay a sum of Rs.50,000/- (rupees fifty thousand only) to the
complainants toward the cost of litigation.
c. Any other order(s) as may be deemed fit and appropriate may also kindly be passed.”
The other nine Consumer Cases were also filed on the same day.
7. On 17.11.2017, the Project was registered with Haryana Real Estate Regulatory Authority,
Panchkula (hereinafter referred to as, “Haryana Authority”). The letter dated 17.11.2017 issued by
Haryana Authority stated:-
“….. Your request for registration of Group Housing Colony being developed over an area of
60460 Sq. Mtrs. Situated in Sector-37-C, Village Gharoli Khurd and Basai, Gurugram, Haryana
with regard to License No.64 of 2011 dated 16.07.2011 issued by the Director, town and
Country Planning Department, Haryana, has been examined vis-avis the provisions of the Real
Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 and HRERA Rules, 2017 and accordingly a
registration certificate is herewith issued with following terms and conditions:-
(i) The Promoter shall comply with the provisions of the Act and the rules and regulations
made there under;
(ii) The Promoter shall deposit seventy percent of the amount to be realized from the
allottees by the Promoter in a separate account to be maintained in a schedule bank to meet
exclusively the cost of land and construction purpose as per provision of Section 4 (2) (L)
(D);
(iii) The registration shall be valid for a period commencing from 17.11.2017 to
31.12.2020;
(iv) The Promoter shall offer to execute and register a conveyance deed in favour of the
allotees or the association of the allottees, as the case may be, of the apartment, plot or
building as the case may be, or on the common areas as per provision of section 17 of the
Act;
(v) The Promoter shall take all the pending approvals from various competent authorities
on time;
(vi) The Promoter shall pay all outstanding payment i.e. land cost, construction cost,
ground rent, municipal or other local taxes, charges for water or electricity, maintenance
charges, including mortgage loan and interest on mortgages or other encumbrances and
such other liabilities payable to competent authorities, bank and financial institutions
which are related to the project until he transfers the physical possession of the real estate
project to the allottees or the associations of allottees, as the case may be;
(vii) The Promoter shall be responsible for providing and maintaining the essential
services, on reasonable charges, till the taking over of the maintenance of the project by
the Municipal Corporation, Gurugram or any other local authority/Association of the
Allottees, as the case may be;
(viii) The Promoter shall not accept a sum more than ten percent of the cost of the
apartment, plot or building as the case may be, as an advance payment or an application
fee, from a person without first entering into a written agreement for sale with such person
and register the said agreement for sale, under any law for the time being in force;
(ix) The Promoter shall adhere all the terms and conditions of this registration and license,
sanctioned plans and other permissions issued by Competent Authorities under the
provision of any other law for the time being in force as applicable to the project. In case
any deficiency in fee is found at later stage and the same shall be recoverable from the
promoter/owner accordingly.
(x) The promoter shall return the amount with interest in case, allotee wishes to withdraw
from the project due to discontinuance of promoter’s business or promoter fails to give
possession of the apartment/plot in accordance with terms and conditions of agreement for
sale in terms of subsection(4) of Section-19. The promoter shall return the entire amount
with interest as well as the compensation payable. The rate of interest payable by the
promoter to the allottee or by the allottee to the promoter, as the case may be, shall be the
State Bank of India highest marginal cost of lending rate plus two percent. The promoter
shall adhere the provisions of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016
and its Rules 2017 issued by the State Government.

(xi) The promoter shall adopt the model agreement for sale (Annexure-A) of the Haryana
Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules, 2017 at the time of booking from the
prospective allottees.
(xii) The Promoter shall, upon receiving his Login Id and password under clause(a) of subsection (1) or under sub-section 92) of section 5, as the case may be, create his web page
on the website of the Authority and enter all details of the proposed project as provided
under sub-section (2) of section 4, including the followings:-
a) Details of the registration granted by the authority;
b) Quarterly up-to-date list of number and type of apartments for plots, as the case may be,
booked;
c) Quarterly up-to-date the list of number of garages/covered parking lot booked;
d) Quarterly up-to-date the list of approvals taken and the approvals which are pending
subsequent to commencement certificate;
e) quarterly up-to-date status of the project; and
f) such other information and documents as may be specified by the regulations made by
the authority.
(xiii) The Promoter shall be responsible to make available to the allottees, the following
information at the time of the booking and issue of allotment letter:-
a) Sanctioned plans, layout, along with specifications, approved by the competent
authority and other information as prescribed in Rule 14 of 2017 framed under the
provision of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act 2016 and the same shall be
displayed at the site or such other place as may be specified by the regulations made by the
Authority.”
8. In its response dated 18.01.2018 to the aforestated Consumer Case No.3011 of 2017, the Appellant
challenged the jurisdiction of the Commission inter alia, on the ground that the apartment having
been booked for commercial purposes, the Respondents would not come within the definition of “the
consumer” under Section 2(d) of the CP Act. No reference was however made to the fact that the
Project had been registered under the RERA Act. It was submitted:-
“8. That the contents and averments made in para 8 are wrong and denied. It is denied that the
date of possession of the unit was 30
th May, 2017. It is submitted that the respondents had
clearly mentioned the schedule for possession of the said apartment/Unit was based upon its
present plans and estimates and subject to all just exceptions, contemplates to complete the
construction of the said building/said apartment within a period of three and half years for the
date of execution of this agreement unless there is delay or there shall be failure due to reasons
beyond the control of the company including Force-Majeure events, delay due to compliance of
new rules, regulations, orders or notifications made/issued by government or any other
authorities with respect to construction at the project site.
11. That the contents and averments made in Para 11 are wrong and denied. It is pertinent to
mention here that the construction of the Tower in which the Unit of the Complainant was
allotted is in full Swing and is nearing possession. The allegations levelled by the Complainant
are concocted & baseless.
9. In their replication, the Respondents submitted, inter alia,:-
“….. the buyer’s agreement was a fixed set of papers, which was asked to be signed by the
complainant and no modification was entertained by the O.P. On request to change the one
sided clauses, it was told that the buyer’s agreement has to be signed as it is and in case it is not
acceptable than the allotment will stand cancelled and earnest money will be forfeited.”
10. Consumer Case No.3011 of 2017 was allowed by the Commission by its judgement and order
dated 12.09.2018. It was observed:-
“10. It is pertinent to note that the Developer has not filed any evidence to support his
contention that the delay occurred due to force majeure events. In fact demonetization, nonavailability of contractual labour, delay in notifying approvals cannot be construed to be force
majeure events from any angle.
11. Learned Counsel for the Developer vehemently argued that the Complainants were offered
alternative accommodation vide letter dated 03.04.2017 which was not accepted by them. The
said letter is reproduced as hereunder:-
“Be that as it may, in view of your allegations of delay which we deny, we hereby offer
that till we complete construction of your subject matter flat we shall arrange alternative
accommodation/flat for you in Group Housing Colony named “Takshila Heights” situated
at Sector-37C, Gurgaon on lease/rent with immediate effect. We will bear the rent of
alternative accommodation/flat at “Takshila Heights”. However, you shall have to pay the
common area maintenance charges and other user based charges like electricity, etc.,
which you would have done for your flat in “Esfera” as well.” (Emphasis supplied).
12. It is significant to mention that in the afore-noted letter there is an admission by the
Developer that the construction is still not completed. Additionally, even the specific date of
delivery of possession has not been mentioned anywhere either in the Written Version or in the
Affidavit or even in the letter dated 03.04.2017 which the Counsel is relying upon.”
Concluding that the Appellant was deficient in rendering service, the Commission granted relief to
the Respondents in following terms:-
“14. Keeping in view the admitted incomplete construction, the fact that some of the
Complainants have also taken bank loans and are paying EMIs and considering the stipulation
provided in Clause 11.4, this Complaint is partly allowed directing the Developer to refund the
amounts deposited with simple interest @ 9% p.a. from the respective dates of deposits till the
date of realization together with costs of Rs.50,000/- to be paid to each of the Complainants.
The directions are to be complied withing fours weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of the
order, failing which, the amount shall attract interest @ 12% p.a. for the said period.”
11. Similarly, all other complaints were allowed by the Commission granting relief of refund of the
amounts deposited by each of the Complainants with simple interest @ 9% per annum from the
respective dates of deposits alongwith Rs.50,000/- towards costs. It was also directed that the
amounts be deposited within four weeks, failing which the amounts would carry interest @ 12% per
annum.
12. The Appellant being aggrieved preferred the instant appeals on 14.03.2019. By way of Additional
Documents, a copy of the letter dated 17.11.2017 was placed on record. An order passed by Haryana
Authority, Gurugram on 17.01.2019 in a complaint preferred by one Himanshu Giri was also placed
on record. The directions issued in said order were to the following effect:-
“27. After taking into consideration all the material facts as adduced and produced by both the
parties, the authority exercising powers vested in it under section 37 of the Real Estate
(Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 hereby issues the following directions to the
respondent in the interest of justice and fair play:
i. The respondent is directed to provide delay possession charges at the prescribed rate of
10.75% per annum for every month of delay w.e.f. 15.9.2016 as per the provisions of
Section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.
ii. The arrears of interest accrued so far shall be paid to the complainant within 90 days
from the date of this order and thereafter monthly payment of interest till handing over the
possession shall be paid before 10
th of subsequent month.”
13. The appeal memo also did not make any reference to the fact that the Project had been registered
under the RERA Act. In the leading appeal, following assertions were made in the list of dates and
events:-
“2011-
2017
The Appellant was unable to hand over
the possession to the Respondents within
the stipulate time as stipulated in Clause
10.1 due to reasons beyond control of
the Appellant viz., due to severe
shortage of contractual labourers and
delay caused in obtaining statutory
requisite permissions for carrying on the
construction of said flats, failed to
deliver possession of the subject flats to
the Respondents within the prescribed
time limit.
One of the grounds raised in the appeal memo was as under:-
“C. Because the Hon’ble Commission failed to appreciate that the Policy of Demonetization
introduced by the Government of India constituted as an event of Force Majeure since as a
consequence of the said event, numerous persons including the Appellant suffered shortage of
cash which resulted in delay in delivering possession to the Respondent. It is humbly submitted
that the shortage of cash ensuing as a result of the Demonitization policy resulted in the
stopping of work since the process of construction requires many payments to be made in cash
on a day to day basis, for example, wages paid to daily wage workers, payments made against
delivery of construction materials, etc.”
14. After issuance of notice on 05.04.2019, it was submitted by the Respondents that the Appellant
had partially refunded the amounts in terms of the directions of the Commission. Following details
indicate that in four out of ten cases, partial refund was made.
S.No. Consumer Case
Number
Amount
Directed to be
Refunded by
Appellant to
Complainant(s)
(In Rupees)
Amount
Refunded by
Appellant (In
Rupees)
1. Consumer Case Rs.63,53,625/- 10,00,000/- No.3011 of 2017
2. Consumer Case
No.3012 of 2017
Rs.55,35,223/- 8,00,000/-
3. Consumer Case
No.3013 of 2017
Rs. 79,45,547/- NIL
4. Consumer Case
No.3014 of 2017
Rs.75,85,280/- NIL
5. Consumer Case
No.3015 of 2017
Rs.56,39,495/- NIL
6. Consumer Case
No.3016 of 2017
Rs.65,26,929/- NIL
7. Consumer Case
No.3017 of 2017
Rs.65,76,497/- 8,00,000/-
8. Consumer Case
No.3018 of 2017
Rs.56,76,600/- 8,00,000/-
9. Consumer Case
No.3019 of 2017
77,46,851/- NIL
10. Consumer Case
No.3020 of 2017
Rs.
1,02,66,866/-
NIL
Refund of Rs. 10,00,000/- to the Respondents, was made on 27.03.2019 i.e. even after filing of the
leading appeal.
15. Mr. Vikas Singh, learned Senior Advocate for the Appellant submitted inter alia:-
a) The Appellant had completed Phase-I of the Project well-in-time and Phase-II of the Project
concerning about 437 allottees was the matter in issue. Out of these 437 allottees, only in 59
cases complaints were filed under the CP Act, while Mr. Himanshu Giri had approached
authorities under the RERA Act. A majority of the allottees had thus reposed faith in the
Appellant.
b) The Appellant had offered alternative accommodation to all the allottees. But the offer was
rejected by all the Complainants which was indicative that the apartments were booked for
investment purposes.
c) The Complainants were not “Consumers” within the meaning of the CP Act as the apartments
were booked merely for profit motive.
d) Once the RERA Act came into force, all questions concerning the Project including issues
relating to construction and completion thereof, would be under the exclusive control and
jurisdiction of the authorities under the RERA Act. The Commission, therefore, ought not to
have entertained the Consumer Cases.

e) The Registration Certificate dated 17.11.2017 being valid upto 31.12.2020, the Appellant
could not be said to have delayed the construction and consequently, there could be no finding
that there was deficiency on part of the Appellant.
f) The order passed in the case of Himanshu Giri had directed payment of interest @ 10.75%
per annum without issuing any direction for refund of money. The approach so adopted would
be conducive to completion of construction and at the same time would balance the interest of
the allottees.
g) Considering the provisions of the RERA Act and the fact that the registration being valid
upto 31.12.2020, the orders passed by the Commission be set aside and instead the
Complainants be granted interest @ 10.75% p.a. on the amounts deposited; whereby the Project
would be completed without putting the Appellant under any financial strain and at the same
time the relief in the nature of interest on investment would also be accruable to the allottees.
16. Ms. Priyanjali Singh, learned Advocate for the Respondents as well as for some of the other
Complainants submitted:-
a) All the Complainants had purchased only one residential apartment each for self-use. They
had taken home loans, except the Complainant in Consumer Case No. 3020 of 2017 who after
his retirement as Group Captain from the Indian Air Force had used all his retirement dues to
book the apartment. Therefore, the issue whether the Complainants satisfied the requirements of
being “Consumers” under the provisions of the CP Act was rightly decided in favour of the
Complainants.
b) The question whether the delay occurred due to force majeure events was also rightly
answered in favour of the Complainants and no reasonable explanation was available on record
to dislodge that finding.
c) In the backdrop of these findings, the Commission was justified in accepting the claim of the
Complainants. In fact, the award of interest @ 9% per annum was at a lower level.
d) At no stage, any plea was taken before the Commission that the Project was registered under
the RERA Act or about the effect of the RERA Act. No such plea was taken even in the appeal
memo. Consequently, it would not be open to the Appellant to raise any submissions about the
applicability of the RERA Act.
e) In any case, as construed by this Court consistently, the remedy afforded by the CP Act
would be an additional remedy to a consumer and said legal position remained unchanged even
after the enactment of the RERA Act.
17. Three Complainants viz. (a) Chandra Shekhar; (b) Rajat Verma; and (c) Krishan Kumar appeared
in person and advanced submissions. It was submitted, inter alia, that the decision of the Commission
did not call for any interference and that they be refunded the entire amount with 12% interest
instead of 9% as awarded by the Commission.
18. At the outset, we must deal with two factual issues. It was concluded by the Commission that; (i)
all the Complainants were ‘Consumers’ within the meaning of the Act and that; (ii) there was delay
on part of the Appellant in completing the construction within time. The stand taken by the Appellant
at various stages, itself acknowledged that there was delay but the Appellant tried to rely on certain
events as mentioned in ground (c) quoted hereinabove. In our view, the conclusions drawn by the
National Commission in relation to these issues are absolutely correct and do not call for any
interference.
19. Before we deal with the issues about the applicability and effect of the RERA Act as well as the
effect of registration of the Project under the RERA Act, the relevant provisions of the CP Act and
the RERA Act may be extracted:-
A] The Consumer Protection Act. 1986
The CP Act was enacted, inter alia, “to provide for better protection of the interest of the consumer”;
to promote and protect the rights of consumers such as “the rights to seek redressal against unfair
trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers”. Sections 3, 12(4) and 24 were to the
following effect: –
“3. Act not in derogation of any other law.-The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to
and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law for the time being in force.
12. Manner in which complaint shall be made…..
(1) ………
(2) ………
(3) ………
(4) Where a complaint is allowed to be proceeded with under sub-section (3), the District
Forum may proceed with the complaint in the manner provided under this Act:
Provided that where a complaint has been admitted by the District Forum, it shall not be
transferred to any other court or tribunal or any authority set up by or under any other law for
the time being in force.
24. Finality of orders. – Every order of a District Forum, the State Commission or the National
Commission shall, if no appeal has been preferred against such order under the provisions of
this Act, be final.”
B] The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act. 2016
Sections 2(d), 2(zg), 2(zj) and 2(zk) define expressions “Allottee”, “Person, “Project” and “Promoter”
respectively. Sections 3, 4, 5, 18, 19, 22, 46, 71, 79, 88 and 89 of the RERA Act are as under:-
“3. Prior registration of real estate project with Real Estate Regulatory Authority
(1) No promoter shall advertise, market, book, sell or offer for sale, or invite persons to
purchase in any manner any plot, apartment or building, as the case may be, in any real estate
project or part of it, in any planning area, without registering the real estate project with the
Real Estate Regulatory Authority established under this Act:
PROVIDED that projects that are ongoing on the date of commencement of this Act and for
which the completion certificate has not been issued, the promoter shall make an application to
the Authority for registration of the said project within a period of three months from the date of
commencement of this Act:
PROVIDED FURTHER that if the Authority thinks necessary, in the interest of allottees, for
projects which are developed beyond the planning area but with the requisite permission of the
local authority, it may, by order, direct the promoter of such project to register with the
Authority, and the provisions of this Act or the rules and regulations made thereunder, shall
apply to such projects from that stage of registration.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), no registration of the real estate
project shall be required-
(a) where the area of land proposed to be developed does not exceed five hundred square
meters or the number of apartments proposed to be developed does not exceed eight
inclusive of all phases: Provided that, if the appropriate Government considers it
necessary, it may, reduce the threshold below five hundred square meters or eight
apartments, as the case may be, inclusive of all phases, for exemption from registration
under this Act;
(b) where the promoter has received completion certificate for a real estate project prior to
commencement of this Act;
(c) for the purpose of renovation or repair or re-development which does not involve
marketing, advertising selling or new allotment of any apartment, plot or building, as the
case may be, under the real estate project.
Explanation.-For the purpose of this section, where the real estate project is to be developed in
phases, every such phase shall be considered a stand alone real estate project, and the promoter
shall obtain registration under this Act for each phase separately.
4. Application for registration of real estate projects
(1) Every promoter shall make an application to the Authority for registration of the real estate
project in such form, manner, within such time and accompanied by such fee as may be
prescribed.
(2) The promoter shall enclose the following documents along with the application referred to
in sub-section (1), namely:-
(a) a brief details of his enterprise including its name, registered address, type of enterprise
(proprietorship, societies, partnership, companies, competent authority), and the particulars
of registration, and the names and photographs of the promoter;
(b) a brief detail of the projects launched by him, in the past five years, whether already
completed or being developed, as the case may be, including the current status of the said
projects, any delay in its completion, details of cases pending, details of type of land and
payments pending;
(c) an authenticated copy of the approvals and commencement certificate from the
competent authority obtained in accordance with the laws as may be applicable for the real
estate project mentioned in the application, and where the project is proposed to be
developed in phases, an authenticated copy of the approvals and commencement certificate
from the competent authority for each of such phases;
(d) the sanctioned plan, layout plan and specifications of the proposed project or the phase
thereof, and the whole project as sanctioned by the competent authority;
(e) the plan of development works to be executed in the proposed project and the proposed
facilities to be provided thereof including fire fighting facilities, drinking water facilities,
emergency evacuation services, use of renewable energy;
(f) the location details of the project, with clear demarcation of land dedicated for the
project along with its boundaries including the latitude and longitude of the end points of
the project;
(g) proforma of the allotment letter, agreement for sale, and the conveyance deed proposed
to be signed with the allottees;
(h) the number, type and the carpet area of apartments for sale in the project along with the
area of the exclusive balcony or verandah areas and the exclusive open terrace areas
apartment with the apartment, if any;
(i) the number and areas of garage for sale in the proj ect;
(j) the names and addresses of his real estate agents, if any, for the proposed project;
(k) the names and addresses of the contractors, architect, structural engineer, if any and
other persons concerned with the development of the proposed project;
(l) a declaration, supported by an affidavit, which shall be signed by the promoter or any
person authorised by the promoter, stating:-
(A) that he has a legal title to the land on which the development is proposed along with
legally valid documents with authentication of such title, if such land is owned by another
person;
(B) that the land is free from all encumbrances, or as the case may be details of the
encumbrances on such land including any rights, title, interest or name of any party in or
over such land along with details;
(C) the time period within which he undertakes to complete the project or phase thereof, as
the case may be;
(D)that seventy per cent, of the amounts realised for the real estate project from the
allottees, from time to time, shall be deposited in a separate account to be maintained in a
scheduled bank to cover the cost of construction and the land cost and shall be used only
for that purpose: Provided that the promoter shall withdraw the amounts from the separate
account, to cover the cost of the project, in proportion to the percentage of completion of
the project: Provided further that the amounts from the separate account shall be
withdrawn by the promoter after it is certified by an engineer, an architect and a chartered
accountant in practice that the withdrawal is in proportion to the percentage of completion
of the project: Provided also that the promoter shall get his accounts audited within six
months after the end of every financial year by a chartered accountant in practice, and shall
produce a statement of accounts duly certified and signed by such chartered accountant
and it shall be verified during the audit that the amounts collected for a particular project
have been utilised for the project and the withdrawal has been in compliance with the
proportion to the percentage of completion of the project. Explanation.- For the purpose of
this clause, the term “schedule bank” means a bank included in the Second Scheduled to
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934;
(E) that he shall take all the pending approvals on time, from the competent authorities;
(F) that he has furnished such other documents as may be prescribed by the rules or
regulations made under this Act; and (m) such other information and documents as may be
prescribed.
(3) The Authority shall operation alise a web based online system for submitting applications
for registration of projects within a period of one year from the date of its establishment.
5. Grant of registration
(1) On receipt of the application under sub-section (1) of section 4, the Authority shall within a
period of thirty days.
(a) grant registration subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations
made thereunder, and provide a registration number, including a Login Id and password to
the applicant for accessing the website of the Authority and to create his web page and to
fill therein the details of the proposed project; or
(b) reject the application for reasons to be recorded in writing, if such application does not
conform to the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder:
PROVIDED that no application shall be rejected unless the applicant has been given an
opportunity of being heard in the matter.
(2) If the Authority fails to grant the registration or reject the application, as the case may be, as
provided under subsection (1), the project shall be deemed to have been registered, and the
Authority shall within a period of seven days of the expiry of the said period of thirty days
specified under sub-section (1), provide a registration number and a Login Id and password to
the promoter for accessing the website of the Authority and to create his web page and to fill
therein the details of the proposed project.
(3) The registration granted under this section shall be valid for a period declared by the
promoter under sub-clause (C) of clause (1) of sub-section (2) of section 4 for completion of the
project or phase thereof, as the case may be.
18. Return of amount and compensation
(1) If the promoter fails to complete or is unable to give possession of an apartment, plot or
building,-
(a) in accordance with the terms of the agreement for sale or, as the case may be, duly
completed by the date specified therein; or
(b) due to discontinuance of his business as a developer on account of suspension or
revocation of the registration under this Act or for any other reason, he shall be liable on
demand to the allottees, in case the allottee wishes to withdraw from the project, without
prejudice to any other remedy available, to return the amount received by him in respect of
that apartment, plot, building, as the case may be, with interest at such rate as may be
prescribed in this behalf including compensation in the manner as provided under this Act:
PROVIDED that where an allottee does not intend to withdraw from the project, he shall be
paid, by the promoter, interest for every month of delay, till the handing over of the possession,
at such rate as may be prescribed.
(2) The promoter shall compensate the allottees in case of any loss caused to him due to
defective title of the land, on which the project is being developed or has been developed, in the
manner as provided under this Act, and the claim for compensation under this subsection shall
not be barred by limitation provided under any law for the time being in force.
(3) If the promoter fails to discharge any other obligations imposed on him under this Act or the
rules or regulations made thereunder or in accordance with the terms and conditions of the
agreement for sale, he shall be liable to pay such compensation to the allottees, in the manner as
provided under this Act.
19. Rights and duties of allottees
(1) The allottee shall be entitled to obtain the information relating to sanctioned plans, layout
plans along with the specifications, approved by the competent authority and such other
information as provided in this Act or the rules and regulations made thereunder or the
agreement for sale signed with the promoter.
(2) The allottee shall be entitled to know stage-wise time schedule of completion of the project,
including the provisions for water, sanitation, electricity and other amenities and services as
agreed to between the promoter and the allottee in accordance with the terms and conditions of
the agreement for sale.
(3) The allottee shall be entitled to claim the possession of apartment, plot or building, as the
case may be, and the association of allottees shall be entitled to claim the possession of the
common areas, as per the declaration given by the promoter under sub-clause (C) of clause (I)
of sub-section (2) of section 4.
(4) The allottee shall be entitled to claim the refund of amount paid along with interest at such
rate as may be prescribed and compensation in the manner as provided under this Act, from the
promoter, if the promoter fails to comply or is unable to give possession of the apartment, plot
or building, as the case may be, in accordance with the terms of agreement for sale or due to
discontinuance of his business as a developer on account of suspension or revocation of his
registration under the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.
(5) The allottee shall be entitled to have the necessary documents and plans, including that of
common areas, after handing over the physical possession of the apartment or plot or building
as the case may be, by the promoter.
(6) Every allottee, who has entered into an agreement for sale to take an apartment, plot or
building as the case may be, under section 13, shall be responsible to make necessary payments
in the manner and within the time as specified in the said agreement for sale and shall pay at the
proper time and place, the share of the registration charges, municipal taxes, water and
electricity charges, maintenance charges, ground rent, and other charges, if any.
(7) The allottee shall be liable to pay interest, at such rate as may be prescribed, for any delay in
payment towards any amount or charges to be paid under sub-section (6).
(8) The obligations of the allottee under sub-section (6) and the liability towards interest under
sub-section (7) may be reduced when mutually agreed to between the promoter and such
allottee.
(9) Every allottee of the apartment, plot or building as the case may be, shall participate towards
the formation of an association or society or cooperative society of the allottees, or a federation
of the same.
(10) Every allottee shall take physical possession of the apartment, plot or building as the case
may be, within a period of two months of the occupancy certificate issued for the said
apartment, plot or building, as the case may be.
(11) Every allottee shall participate towards registration of the conveyance deed of the
apartment, plot or building, as the case may be, as provided under sub-section (1) of section 17
of this Act.
22. Qualifications of Chairperson and Members of Authority:-
The Chairperson and other Members of the Authority shall be appointed by the appropriate
Government on the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of the Chief Justice
of the High Court or his nominee, the Secretary of the Department dealing with Housing and the
Law Secretary, in such manner as may be prescribed, from amongst persons having adequate
knowledge of and professional experience of at-least twenty years in case of the Chairperson
d fifteen years in the case of the Members in urban development, housing, real estate
development, infrastructure, economics, technical experts from relevant fields, planning, law,
commerce, accountancy, industry, management, social service, public affairs or administration:
Provided that a person who is, or has been, in the service of the State Government shall not be
appointed as a Chairperson unless such person has held the post of Additional Secretary to the
Central Government or any equivalent post in the Central Government or State Government:
Provided further that a person who is, or has been, in the service of the State Government shall
not be appointed as a member unless such person has held the post of Secretary to the State
Government or any equivalent post in the State Government or Central Government.
46. Qualifications for appointment of Chairperson and Members:-
1) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Chairperson or a Member of the
Appellate Tribunal unless he,-
(a) in the case of Chairperson, is or has been a Judge of a High Court; and
(b) in the case of a Judicial Member he has held a judicial office in the territory of India for
at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the
post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate
for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters; and
(c) in the case of a Technical or Administrative Member, he is a person who is well-versed
in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure,
economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or
administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has
held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of
Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central
Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
(2) The Chairperson of the Appellate Tribunal shall be appointed by the appropriate
Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of High Court or his nominee.
(3) The Judicial Members and Technical or Administrative Members of the Appellate Tribunal
shall be appointed by the appropriate Government on the recommendations of a Selection
Committee consisting of the Chief Justice of the High Court or his nominee, the Secretary of the
Department handling Housing and the Law Secretary and in such manner as may be prescribed.
71. Power to adjudicate
(1) For the purpose of adjudging compensation under sections 12, 14, 18 and section 19, the
Authority shall appoint in consultation with the appropriate Government one or more judicial
officer as deemed necessary, who is or has been a District Judge to be an adjudicating officer for
holding an inquiry in the prescribed manner, after giving any person concerned a reasonable
opportunity of being heard:
PROVIDED that any person whose complaint in respect of matters covered under sections 12,
14, 18 and section 19 is pending before the Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum or the
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission or the National Consumer Redressal Commission,
established under section 9 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, on or before the
commencement of this Act, he may, with the permission of such Forum or Commission, as the
case may be, withdraw the complaint pending before it and file an application before the
adjudicating officer under this Act.
(2) The application for adjudging compensation under subsection (1), shall be dealt with by the
adjudicating officer as expeditiously as possible and dispose of the same within a period of sixty
days from the date of receipt of the application:
PROVIDED that where any such application could not be disposed of within the said period of
sixty days, the adjudicating officer shall record his reasons in writing for not disposing of the
application within that period.
(3) While holding an inquiry the adjudicating officer shall have power to summon and enforce
the attendance of any person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case to give
evidence or to produce any document which in the opinion of the adjudicating officer, may be
useful for or relevant to the subject matter of the inquiry and if, on such inquiry, he is satisfied
that the person has failed to comply with the provisions of any of the sections specified in subsection (1), he may direct to pay such compensation or interest, as the case any be, as he thinks
fit in accordance with the provisions of any of those sections.
79. Bar of jurisdiction
No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter
which the Authority or the adjudicating officer or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered by or
under this Act to determine and no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in
respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under this
Act.
88. Application of other laws not barred
The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the provisions of any
other law for the time being in force.
89. Act to have overriding effect
The provisions of this Act shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith
contained in any other law for the time being in force.”
20. The question whether the remedies available to the consumers under the provisions of the CP Act
would be additional remedies, was considered by this Court in some cases, the notable cases being:-
i) In Secretary, Thirumurugan Cooperative Agricultural Credit Society vs. M. Lalitha
(dead) through LRs. and others, (2004) 1 SCC 305 this Court observed:-
“11. From the Statement of Objects and Reasons and the scheme of the 1986 Act, it is
apparent that the main objective of the Act is to provide for better protection of the interest
of the consumer and for that purpose to provide for better redressal, mechanism through
which cheaper, easier, expeditious and effective redressal is made available to consumers.
To serve the purpose of the Act, various quasi-judicial forums are set up at the district,
State and national level with wide range of powers vested in them. These quasi-judicial
forums, observing the principles of natural justice, are empowered to give relief of a
specific nature and to award, wherever appropriate, compensation to the consumers and to
impose penalties for non-compliance with their orders.
12. As per Section 3 of the Act, as already stated above, the provisions of the Act shall be
in addition to and not in derogation of any other provisions of any other law for the time
being in force. Having due regard to the scheme of the Act and purpose sought to be
achieved to protect the interest of the consumers better, the provisions are to be interpreted
broadly, positively and purposefully in the context of the present case to give meaning to
additional/extended jurisdiction, particularly when Section 3 seeks to provide remedy
under the Act in addition to other remedies provided under other Acts unless there is a
clear bar.”
The issue in this case was whether in the face of Section 156 of the Tamil Nadu Cooperative
Societies Act, 1983 the concerned persons could avail remedies under the CP Act. Interpreting
Section 3 of the CP Act, it was held that the remedy provided under the CP Act would be in addition
to the remedies provided under the other Acts.
ii) In National Seeds Corporation Limited vs. M. Madhusudhan Reddy and another,
(2012) 2 SCC 506 it was observed:-
“57. It can thus be said that in the context of farmers/growers and other consumers of
seeds, the Seeds Act is a special legislation insofar as the provisions contained therein
ensure that those engaged in agriculture and horticulture get quality seeds and any person
who violates the provisions of the Act and/or the Rules is brought before the law and
punished. However, there is no provision in that Act and the Rules framed thereunder for
compensating the farmers, etc. who may suffer adversely due to loss of crop or deficient
yield on account of defective seeds supplied by a person authorised to sell the seeds. That
apart, there is nothing in the Seeds Act and the Rules which may give an indication that the
provisions of the Consumer Protection Act are not available to the farmers who are
otherwise covered by the wide definition of “consumer” under Section 2(l)(d) of the
Consumer Protection Act. As a matter of fact, any attempt to exclude the farmers from the
ambit of the Consumer Protection Act by implication will make that Act vulnerable to an
attack of unconstitutionality on the ground of discrimination and there is no reason why
the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act should be so interpreted.
62. Since the farmers/growers purchased seeds by paying a price to the appellant, they
would certainly fall within the ambit of Section 2(1)(d)(z) of the Consumer Protection Act
and there is no reason to deny them the remedies which are available to other consumers of
goods and services.”
In this case the provisions of the CP Act and those under the Seeds Act, 1966 were considered.
iii) In Virender Jain vs. Alaknanda Cooperative Group Housing Society Limited and others,
(2013) 9 SCC 383 it was observed by this Court as under:-
“13. The other question which needs to be considered is whether the District Forum should not
have entertained the complaints filed by the appellants and directed them to avail the statutory
remedies available under the Cooperative Societies Act. Shri Neeraj Jain vehemently argued
that the forums constituted under the Act cannot grant relief to the appellants because the action
taken by Respondent 1 was approved by the authorities constituted under the Cooperative
Societies Act, who were not impleaded as parties in the complaints.
14. In our view, there is no merit in the submission of the learned Senior Counsel. In the
complaints filed by them, the appellants had primarily challenged the action of Respondent 1 to
refund the amounts deposited by them and thereby extinguished their entitlement to get the
flats. Therefore, the mere fact that the action taken by Respondent 1 was approved by the
Assistant Registrar, Cooperative Societies and higher authorities, cannot deprive the appellants
of their legitimate right to seek remedy under the Act, which is in addition to the other remedies
available to them under the Cooperative Societies Act. Law on this issue must be treated as
settled by the judgments of this Court in Thirumurugan Coop. Agricultural Credit Society v.
M. Lalitha,(supra) Kishore Lal vs. ESI Corpn., (2007) 4 SCC 579 and National Seeds
Corpn. Ltd. v. M. Madhusudhan Reddy.(supra)
. In the last mentioned judgment, National Seeds Corpn. Case(supra), this Court referred to
the earlier judgments in Fair Air Engineers (P) Ltd. vs. N.K. Modi, (1996) 6 SCC 385,
Thirumurugan Coop. Agricultural Credit Society vs. M. Lalitha(supra), Skypak Couriers
Ltd. vs. Tata Chemicals Ltd., (2000) 5 SCC 294 and Trans Mediterranean Airways vs.
Universal Exports, (2011) 10 SCC 316 and held that the remedy available under the Act is in
addition to the remedies available under other statutes and the availability of alternative
remedies is not a bar to the entertaining of a complaint filed under the Act.”
In this case the statutory remedies available under the Haryana Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 as
against those under the CP Act was the matter in issue.
21. It has consistently been held by this Court that the remedies available under the provisions of the
CP Act are additional remedies over and above the other remedies including those made available
under any special statutes; and that the availability of an alternate remedy is no bar in entertaining a
complaint under the CP Act.
22. Before we consider whether the provisions of the RERA Act have made any change in the legal
position stated in the preceding paragraph, we may note that an allottee placed in circumstances
similar to that of the Complainants, could have initiated following proceedings before the RERA Act
came into force.
A) If he satisfied the requirements of being a “consumer” under the CP Act, he could have
initiated proceedings under the CP Act in addition to normal civil remedies.
B) However, if he did not fulfil the requirements of being a “consumer”, he could initiate and
avail only normal civil remedies.
C) If the agreement with the developer or the builder provided for arbitration :-
i) in cases covered under Clause ‘B’ hereinabove, he could initiate or could be called upon
to invoke the remedies in arbitration,
ii) in cases covered under Clause ‘A’ hereinabove, in accordance with law laid down in
Emaar MGF Ltd and anr. vs. Aftab Singh, (2019) 12 SCC 751 he could still choose to
proceed under the CP Act.
23. In terms of Section 18 of the RERA Act, if a promoter fails to complete or is unable to give
possession of an apartment duly completed by the date specified in the agreement, the Promoter
would be liable, on demand, to return the amount received by him in respect of that apartment if the
allottee wishes to withdraw from the Project. Such right of an allottee is specifically made “without
prejudice to any other remedy available to him”. The right so given to the allottee is unqualified and
if availed, the money deposited by the allottee has to be refunded with interest at such rate as may be
prescribed. The proviso to Section 18(1) contemplates a situation where the allottee does not intend
to withdraw from the Project. In that case he is entitled to and must be paid interest for every month
of delay till the handing over of the possession. It is upto the allottee to proceed either under Section
18(1) or under proviso to Section 18(1). The case of Himanshu Giri came under the latter category.
The RERA Act thus definitely provides a remedy to an allottee who wishes to withdraw from the
Project or claim return on his investment.
24. It is, therefore, required to be considered whether the remedy so provided under the RERA Act to
an allottee is the only and exclusive modality to raise a grievance and whether the provisions of the
RERA Act bar consideration of the grievance of an allottee by other fora.
25. Section 79 of the RERA Act bars jurisdiction of a Civil Court to entertain any suit or proceeding
in respect of any matter which the Authority or the adjudicating officer or the Appellate Tribunal is
empowered under the RERA Act to determine. Section 88 specifies that the provisions of the RERA
Act would be in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law, while in terms
of Section 89, the provisions of the RERA Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything
inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force.
26. On plain reading of Section 79 of the RERA Act, an allottee described in category (B) stated in
paragraph 22 hereinabove, would stand barred from invoking the jurisdiction of a Civil Court.
However, as regards the allottees who can be called “consumers” within the meaning of the CP Act,
two questions would arise; a) whether the bar specified under Section 79 of the RERA Act would
apply to proceedings initiated under the provisions of the CP Act; and b) whether there is anything
inconsistent in the provisions of the CP Act with that of the RERA Act.
27. In Malay Kumar Ganguli vs. Dr. Sukumar Mukherjee, (2009) 9 SCC 221 it was held by this
Court:-
“The proceedings before the National Commission are although judicial proceedings, but at the
same time it is not a civil court within the meaning of the provisions of the Code of Civil
Procedure. It may have all the trappings of the civil court but yet it cannot be called a civil
court. (See Bharat Bank Ltd. vs. Employees, AIR 1950 SC 188 : 1950 SCR 459 and Nahar
Industrial Enterprises Ltd. vs. Hong Kong & Shanghai Banking Corpn., (2009) 6 SCC 635
On the strength of the law so declared, Section 79 of the RERA Act does not in any way bar the
Commission or Forum under the provisions of the CP Act to entertain any complaint.
28. Proviso to Section 71(1) of the RERA Act entitles a complainant who had initiated proceedings
under the CP Act before the RERA Act came into force, to withdraw the proceedings under the CP
Act with the permission of the Forum or Commission and file an appropriate application before the
adjudicating officer under the RERA Act. The proviso thus gives a right or an option to the
concerned complainant but does not statutorily force him to withdraw such complaint nor do the
provisions of the RERA Act create any mechanism for transfer of such pending proceedings to
authorities under the RERA Act. As against that the mandate in Section 12(4) of the CP Act to the
contrary is quite significant.
Again, insofar as cases where such proceedings under the CP Act are initiated after the provisions of
the RERA Act came into force, there is nothing in the RERA Act which bars such initiation. The
absence of bar under Section 79 to the initiation of proceedings before a fora which cannot be called
a Civil Court and express saving under Section 88 of the RERA Act, make the position quite clear.
Further, Section 18 itself specifies that the remedy under said Section is “without prejudice to any
other remedy available”. Thus, the parliamentary intent is clear that a choice or discretion is given to
the allottee whether he wishes to initiate appropriate proceedings under the CP Act or file an
application under the RERA Act.
29. It was, however, urged that going by the objective or the purpose for which the RERA Act was
enacted and considering the special expertise and the qualifications of the Chairpersons and
Members of the Authority (Section 22) and the Appellate Tribunal (Section 46), such authorities
alone must be held entitled to decide all issues concerning the Project registered under the RERA
Act. It was submitted that if the allottees were to be permitted to initiate parallel proceedings before
the fora under the CP Act, the financial drain on the promoter would render completion of
construction an impossibility and, therefore, the RERA Act in general and Section 89 in particular be
construed in such a way that all the issues pertaining to the concerned project be decided only by the
authorities under the RERA Act. Even with acceptance of such interpretation, the allottees would still
be entitled to approach the authorities under Section 18 of the RERA Act.
30. It is true that some special authorities are created under the RERA Act for the regulation and
promotion of the real estate sector and the issues concerning a registered project are specifically
entrusted to functionaries under the RERA Act. But for the present purposes, we must go by the
purport of Section 18 of the RERA Act. Since it gives a right “without prejudice to any other remedy
available’, in effect, such other remedy is acknowledged and saved subject always to the applicability
of Section 79.
31. At this stage, we may profitably refer to the decision in Pioneer Urban Land and
Infrastructure Limited and another vs. Union of India and another, (2019) 8 SCC 416 where a
bench of three Judges of this Court was called upon to consider the provisions of Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016, RERA Act and other legislations including the provisions of the CP Act.
One of the conclusions arrived at by this Court was:-
“100. RERA is to be read harmoniously with the Code, as amended by the Amendment Act. It
is only in the event of conflict that the Code will prevail over RERA. Remedies that are given to
allottees of flats/apartments are therefore concurrent remedies, such allottees of flats/apartments
being in a position to avail of remedies under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, RERA as
well as the triggering of the Code.”
32. We, therefore, reject the submissions advanced by the Appellant and answer the questions raised
in paragraph 26 hereinabove against the Appellant.
33. We may now consider the effect of the registration of the Project under the RERA Act. In the
present case the apartments were booked by the Complainants in 2011-2012 and the Builder Buyer
Agreements were entered into in November, 2013. As promised, the construction should have been
completed in 42 months. The period had expired well before the Project was registered under the
provisions of the RERA Act. Merely because the registration under the RERA Act is valid till
31.12.2020 does not mean that the entitlement of the concerned allottees to maintain an action stands
deferred. It is relevant to note that even for the purposes of Section 18, the period has to be reckoned
in terms of the agreement and not the registration. Condition no. (x) of the letter dated 17.11.2017
also entitles an allottee in same fashion. Therefore, the entitlement of the Complainants must be
considered in the light of the terms of the Builder Buyer Agreements and was rightly dealt with by
the Commission.
34. Lastly, it may be noted that the Consumer Protection Act, 2019[3] (hereinafter referred as, “2019
Act”) was enacted by the Parliament “to provide for protection of the interests of consumers and for
the said purpose, to establish authorities for timely and effectively administration and settlement of
the consumers’ dispute and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”. Sections 2(7),
2(33), 2(37), and 2(42) define expressions “Consumer”, “Product”, “Product Seller” and “Service”
respectively. Sections 85 and 86 deal with liability of “Product Service Provider” and “Product
Seller”. Sections 100 and 107 of 2019 Act are to the following effect:-
“100. The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of the
provisions of any other law for the time being in force.
107. (1) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken or purported to have
been done or taken under the Act hereby repealed shall, in so far as it Is not inconsistent
with the provisions of this Act, be deemed to have been done or taken under the
corresponding provisions of this Act.
(3) The mention of particular matters in sub-section (2) shall not be held to prejudice or
affect the general application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 with regard to
the effect of repeal.”
[3] Most of the provisions in Chapters I, II, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII including Sections 100 and
107 were brought into force w.e.f. 27.07.2020 vide Notification dated 15.07.2020
Section 100 of 2019 Act is akin to Section 3 of the CP Act and Section 107 saves all actions taken or
purported to have been taken under the CP Act. It is significant that Section 100 is enacted with an
intent to secure the remedies under 2019 Act dealing with protection of the interests of Consumers,
even after the RERA Act was brought into force.
Thus, the proceedings initiated by the complainants in the present cases and the resultant actions
including the orders passed by the Commission are fully saved.
35. Resultantly, we reject all the submissions advanced by the Appellant. These appeals are
accordingly dismissed affirming the view taken by the Commission. We quantify the costs at
Rs.50,000/- (Rupees Fifty Thousand only) to be paid by the Appellant in respect of each of the
Consumer Cases, over and above the amounts directed to be made over to the Complainants and
shall form part of the amount payable by the Appellant to the Complainants.
36. All the Complainants are entitled to execute the orders passed by the Commission in their favour,
in accordance with law.

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Dispute between member and society cannot be adjudicated by Consumer protection forum.

Law

NATIONAL CONSUMER DISPUTES REDRESSAL COMMISSION NEW DELHI

REVISION PETITION NO. 4871 OF 2012

(From the order dated 23.08.2012 in First Appeal No.
756/2011 of

State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, KERALA )

Ms. Anjana Abraham Chembethil, Mutholapura P.O Ernakulam District

Represented
by Power of Attorney Holder Abraham C Mathew Chembethil Mutholapura P.O. Ernakulam District
Kerala Petitioner

Versus

The Managing Director The Koothattukulam Farmers Service Co-operative Bank Ltd No. E-45,
Koothattukulam 686 662 Respondent

BEFORE: HON’BLE
MR. JUSTICE J.M. MALIK, PRESIDING MEMBER

HONBLE DR. S.M.
KANTIKAR, MEMBER

For the Petitioner : Sh. Vinod Joseph PJ, Advocate

For the
Respondent : Mr. Biju P.Raman, Advocate

With Ms. Usha Nandini, V, Advocate

PRONOUNCED
ON _2nd SEPTEMBER, 2013

ORDER
JUSTICE J.M. MALIK

1. The key question which falls for consideration is, Whether a Member can pick up a conflict with Co-operative Society, under the Consumer Protection Act?. The facts of this case are these. Ms.Anjana Abraham, the petitioner/complainant has filed this case through her Power of Attorney, Mr.Abraham C.Mathew, who is her father. On 29.05.1989, Mr. Abraham C. Mathew, deposited a sum of Rs.10,000/- under Mangalya Deposit Scheme with the OP/respondent. As per the Scheme, the complainant was entitled to get back Rs.1,60,000/- on the date of maturity, i.e. 29.05.2009. When the complainant requested on 05.06.2009, to pay the said maturity amount, the respondent refused to pay the same. The OPs have admitted that the said deposit was made.

It is averred that the General Body of the Bank reduced the rate of interest. The petitioner/complainant invested the same and the OP was ready to pay the interest, as mentioned in the letter dated 30.06.2003.

2. The District Forum partly allowed the complaint, filed by the complainant. The State Commission accepted the appeal filed by the opposite party/respondent and dismissed the complaint.

3. We have heard the arguments.

As a matter of fact, the consumer fora have no jurisdiction to try the disputes arising between Co-operative Societies and its Members. Section 69 of the Co-operative Societies Act, 1969, runs as follows:-

Chapter IX Settlement of Disputes

69. Disputes to be decided by Co-operative Arbitration Court and Registrar. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the first time being in force, if a dispute arises :-

a) among members;

past member or person claiming through members, past members and deceased members; or

b) between a member, past member or deceased member and the society, its committee or any officer, agent or employee of that society; or

c) between the society or its committee and any past committee, any officer, agent or employee or any past officer, past agent or past employee or the nominee, heirs or legal representatives of any deceased officer, deceased agent or deceased employee of the society; or

d) between the society and any other society; or

e) between a society and the members of a society affiliated to it; or

f) between the society and a person, other than a member of the society, who has been granted a loan by the society or with whom the society has or had business transactions or any person claiming through such a person; or

g) between the society and a surety of a member, past member, deceased member or employee or a person, other than a member, who has been granted a loan by the society, whether such a surety is or is not a member of the society; or

h) between the society and a creditor of the society; such dispute shall be referred to the Co-operative Arbitration Court constituted under Sec.70A, in the case of non-monetary disputes and to the Registrar, in the case of monetary disputes and the Arbitration Court, or the Registrar, as the case may be, shall decide such dispute and no other authority, shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or other proceedings in respect of such dispute.

4. Similar view was taken in the case reported as P.P.Kapoor Vs. Government Servants Co-operative House Building Society Ltd., I (1999) CPJ 81, wherein it was held in Para 7 of its judgment, as under :-

In our view, the dispute sought to be raised was a dispute arising out of the alleged non-compliance of provisions of the Delhi Co-operative Societies Act and the Rules framed thereunder, under Section 60 of the said Act. Section 93(1)(c) of the said Act vests jurisdiction in respect of the disputes required to be referred to the Registrar under Section 60. Sub-rule 3 ousts jurisdiction of any Court, on any ground, whatsoever to question any order/decision or award made under the Act. In Dilip Bapat & Anr., Vs. Panchyati Co-operative Housing Society Limited, I (1993) CPJ 68 (NC), it was observed in Para-11 of the report that dispute of this nature is not a consumer dispute under the Consumer Protection Act and the right Forum was to have ones remedy under the Co-operative Societies Act.

5. Consequently, we dismiss the revision petition, but grant opportunity to the petitioner/complainant to seek his/her grievance(s) before the appropriate forum, except the consumer fora, as per law.

….J (J.M. MALIK) PRESIDING MEMBER .

(DR.S.M. KANTIKAR) MEMBER Dd/9

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Thank you for your response. ✨

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Disaster Management Act, 2005 – Section 71 and 72 – Jurisdiction – Students cannot be promoted without exams

Law

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

FULL BENCH

PRANEETH K AND OTHERS — Appellant

Vs.

UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION (UGC) AND OTHERS — Respondent

( Before : Ashok Bhushan, R. Subhash Reddy and M.R. Shah, JJ. )

Writ Petition (Civil) No.724 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 739 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 746 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 745 of 2020, Special Leave Petition(C) No. 10042 of 2020 (Diary No. 15056 of 2020), Writ Petition (Civil) No. 741 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 794 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 814 of 2020, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 862 of 2020 and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 861 of 2020

Decided on : 28-08-2020

Disaster Management Act, 2005 – Section 71 and 72 – Jurisdiction – Students cannot be promoted without exams – State Governments or State Disaster Management Authority in exercise of power under Disaster Management Act, 2005 has no jurisdiction to take a decision that the students of final year/terminal students should be promoted on the basis of earlier year assessment and internal assessment – This Court Grant liberty to such State/Union Territory to make an application to the University Grants Commission for extending deadline of 30.09.2020 for that State/Union Territory which shall be considered by UGC and rescheduled date be communicated to such State/Union Territory at the earliest.

Counsel for Appearing Parties

Alakh Alok, Advocate, Sachin Patil, Advocate, Apoorv Kurup, Advocate, Harsh Lata, Advocate, Meera Mathur, Advocate, Bharat Thakorlal Manubarwala, Advocate, Sudhanshu S. Choudhari, Advocate, Anish R. Shah, Advocate, Jyoti Mendiratta, Advocate,Mohini Priya, Advocate, Namit Saxena, Advocate, Gaurav Agrawal, Advocate, R. R. Deshpande Advocate for the Appearing Parties

Cases Referred

  • Dr. Preeti Srivastava and Anr. vs. State of M.P. and Ors., (1999) 7 SCC 120
  • Dr. Sadhna Devi and Ors. vs. State of U.P. and Ors., (1997) 3 SCC 90.
  • Gujarat University and Anr. vs. Shri Krishna Ranganath Mudholkar and Ors., AIR 1963 SC 703
  • Hingir-Rampur Coal Co. Ltd. vs. State of Orissa [1961] 2 SCR 537: (AIR 1961 SC 459)
  • Maa Vaishno Devi Mahila Mahavidyalaya vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Ors., (2013) 2 SCC 617
  • Modern Dental College and Research Centre and Ors. vs. State of Madhya Pradesh and Ors., (2016) 7 SCC 353
  • Professor Yashpal and Anr. vs. State of Chhattisgarh and Ors., (2005) 5 SCC 420.
  • Rajbir Singh Dalal vs. Chaudhary Devi Lal University (2008) 9 SCC 284
  • State (NCT of Delhi) vs. Sanjay, 2014(9) SCC 772
  • Tariq Islam vs. Aligarh Muslim University (2001) 8 SCC 546
  • University Grants Commission and Anr. vs. Neha Anil Bobde (Gadekar), (2013) 10 SCC 519
  • University of Mysore vs. C.D. Govinda Rao, AIR 1965 SC 491

JUDGMENT

Ashok Bhushan, J. – This batch of cases consisting of writ petitions (except one Special Leave Petition, i.e., SLP (C) D. No.15056 of 2020) filed under Article 32 of the Constitution of India can be divided into two broad groups. First group of writ petitions consists of petitions filed by students, youth organisations and the teachers associations challenging the guidelines issued by University Grants Commission (hereinafter referred to as “UGC”) dated 06.07.2020, O.M. dated 06.07.2020 issued by Ministry of Human Resource Development and letter dated 06.07.2020 issued by Ministry of Home Affairs whereby all the Universities and Colleges across the country had been directed to conduct terminal semester/ final year examinations by 30.09.2020. A further relief has been sought directing the respondents to declare the results of the students of the final year/terminal semester examinations of all universities/ institutions of the country on the basis of their past performance/internal assessment and to award marksheets and degrees. The second group of writ petitions are the writ petitions filed by the students challenging the decision of the State Disaster Management Authority as well as of the States (State of Maharashtra and State of West Bengal) for not holding final term examination. Further prayers have been made that State of Maharashtra as well as State of West Bengal be directed to comply with the UGC revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 and O.M. dated 06.07.2020 of Ministry of Human Resource Development. The special leave petition has been filed against a common order dated 14.07.2020 passed by the High Court of Delhi in Writ Petition No. 3199 of 2020 and other connected matters by which the High Court noted the schedule of examination in the Open Book Examination (OBE) mode by University of Delhi.

2. In Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020, Praneeth K and Others Vs. University Grants Commission and Others, a common counter affidavit, additional affidavit and affidavit in reply to the UGC has been filed. The State of Maharashtra has also filed affidavits in Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020. All the parties in Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020 are represented. Other writ petitions and special leave petition are tagged with Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020. The decision in Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020 shall be sufficient to answer the issues raised in this batch of cases. The pleadings in Writ Petition (C)No. 724 of 2020 need to be noted in some detail with brief reference of prayers in other writ petitions and special leave petition.

Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020 – Praneeth K and Ors. Vs. University Grants Commission and Ors.

3. This writ petition has been filed by 31 students pursuing undergraduate or postgraduate terminal semester/final year courses in different Universities located in different States across the country. The petitioners are studying in different Universities located in States of Kerala, Maharashtra, Assam, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, NCT Delhi, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Meghalaya. Petitioners’ case is that due to pandemic COVID-19, Government of India announced the nationwide lockdown w.e.f. 24.03.2020 in order to contain the spread of COVID-19. The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India issued various directions, guidelines and SOPs. Various educational institutes and Universities extended their dates of examination for various courses postponing the same indefinitely.

4. UGC constituted an Expert Committee to deliberate and make recommendations regarding issues of examination and academic calendar. The Expert Committee submitted its report on basis of which UGC issued guidelines on 29.04.2020, in which guidelines it was proposed to take the final year university examination by 31.07.2020. Number of COVID cases being still rising, the above Expert Committee was requested by UGC to revisit the guidelines. The Expert Committee submitted its report, which was approved by UGC on 06.07.2020 and UGC revised the guidelines and issued academic calendar for final year examinations. In view of COVID-19 pandemic, the revised guidelines provided that Universities are required to complete the examinations by end of September, 2020 in offline (pen and paper)/online/blended (offline + online) following the prescribed protocol/guidelines relating to COVID-19. On 06.07.2020, the Ministry of Human Resource Development formulated SOP for conduct of the examination duly vetted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. On 06.07.2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs by a letter permitted the Ministry of Human Resource Development to conduct the examination by Universities and institutions.

5. The petitioners’ case is that the decision of the UGC, Ministry of Human Resource Development and Ministry of Home Affairs to conduct the final term/final examinations of Universities and institutions throughout the country amid COVID-19 pandemic is extremely arbitrary, whimsical and detrimental to the health and safety of the students as well as violative of fundamental rights of lakhs of students enshrined under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India including those of the writ petitioners.

6. In pursuance of the guidelines dated 06.07.2020, various institutions and colleges have issued notifications notifying the final year examination. Many universities and educational institutions of India and abroad have issued their admission notification for the year 2020-2021 wherein the last date of online registration was 31.07.2020 and unless a candidate possess the degree before that he cannot apply for admission. Representation dated 09.07.2020 has been submitted to the Minister of Human Resource Development to find an alternate way to save the careers of the students. The petitioners have further claimed that various other examination Boards like CBSE, ICSE, ISC have cancelled their Xth/XIIth Board examination due to COVID-19 pandemic and has declared the result on the basis of past performance/internal assessment. On one hand, the UGC has exempted the students of intermediate years/semester from appearing in the examinations due to COVID-19 outbreak and on the other hand has forced the final year students to appear in the examinations, which is discriminatory and arbitrary. The petitioners in the writ petition have made following specific prayers:-

a) Issue urgent Writ In the nature of mandamus or any Other appropriate Writ, Order or Direction to quash and set aside the Letter bearing D.O. No.F.1-1/2020 (Secy) dated 06.07.2020 issued by the Respondent No.1 UGC (Annexure P-3) AND the Office Memorandum bearing F.No. 16-16/2020-U1A dated 06.07.2020, issued by the respondent No. 3 MHRD (Annexure P-4) AND Notification bearing NW/RK/PK/AD/DD dated 06.07.2020, issued by the Press Information Bureau, Government of India (Annexure P-5) whereby all the Universities and Colleges across India have been directed to conduct final Term/final year examinations by 30.09.2020; and/or

b) Accordingly, issue urgent Writ In the nature of mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Order or Direction to the Respondent Nos. 1, 2 and 3 to not conduct the final Term/ final Year examinations of all Universities/ institutions across India; and/or

c) Issue urgent Writ in the nature of mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Order or Direction to the Respondent Nos.1, 2 and 3 to declare results of the Petitioners and other similarly situated students of the final Term/ final Year examinations of all Universities/ Institutions across India, on the basis of their past performance/ internal assessment and to award marksheets and degrees to all successful students on or before 31.07.2020; and/or

d) Issue urgent Writ in the nature of mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Order or Direction to the Respondent Nos.1, 2 and 3 to also adopt CBSE mechanism end provide subsequently another chance to Improve marks to those willing students, who may be unsatisfied with their score based upon their past performance or Internal assessment; and/or

e) Pass any other order or direction as this Hon’ble Court may deem it and proper In the facts and circumstances of the case and in the interest of justice.”

7. By our order dated 27.07.2020, we had directed the petitioners to serve a copy to learned Solicitor General as well as learned counsel for the UGC. Three days’ time was given to file the counter affidavit and rejoinder was directed to be filed on next date. In pursuance of order dated 27.07.2020, a common counter affidavit dated 30.07.2020 has been filed by UGC. UGC has also filed additional affidavits. An affidavit dated 05.08.2020 was also filed by the State of Maharashtra in Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020, reply of which was filed by the UGC vide its affidavit dated 17.08.2020. Pleadings were complete in Writ Petition (C) No. 724 of 2020, consideration of which writ petition shall answer all issues raised in this batch of cases.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 739 of 2020 -Yuva Sena Vs. University Grants Commission and Ors.

8. This writ petition has been filed as a public interest litigation by the petitioner, which is youth wing of Shiv Sena, registered and recognized political party in India. After issuance of revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 by UGC, the petitioner claims to have addressed a letter dated 07.07.2020 to Minister of Human Resource Development praying to reconsider the decision of compulsorily conducting final year examinations. Petitioner’s case is that UGC had issued earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020, which were advisory in nature and each University was to chart out its own plan of action taking into consideration the issues pertaining to COVID-19 pandemic. Petitioner’s case is that revised guidelines have been passed in ignorance of rising cases of COVID-19 and have crated great fear in the minds of students around the country especially in the States of Maharashtra, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Delhi. The impugned guidelines have not taken into account the consequent risk of life to which the students writing examinations would be exposed to.

9. Petitioner’s case further is that various States are suffering gravely from pandemic of COVID-19 and respective State Governments have imposed/implemented various levels of lockdown under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Petitioner pleads that as a result of the lockdown, Universities, schools, educational institutions were forced to shut down and to postpone the terminal semester/final year examinations. Petitioner pleaded that pursuant to the UGC guidelines dated 29.04.2020, the Ministry of Higher and Technical Education, State of Maharashtra had set up a State level Committee in view of the grave situation of pandemic COVID-19, which Committee submitted a report on 06.05.2020 and recommended that the final year exams may be conducted between 01.07.2020 to 31.07.2020, the said recommendations were objected by petitioner and representation was made to cancel the examinations. Petitioner also claims to have made a representation to the Government of Maharashtra requesting for not to hold any examinations. On 19.06.2020, the State of Maharashtra vide a Government Resolution dated19.06.2020 took a resolution for cancellation of the terminal semester/final year examinations considering the safety of health and life of the students and for the allotment of grades and aggregate marks to students based on their previous semester and internal marks.

10. Petitioner’s case is that cases of COVID-19 are increasing day by day in the State of Maharashtra and many college buildings in the State of Maharashtra have been requisitioned by the State Government / its bodies like Municipal Corporation to be converted into quarantine centres and for other public purpose in view of present pandemic COVID-19, hence it is impractical to hold examinations. In the writ petition, petitioner has also given certain details with regard to different States pertaining to number of COVID-19 cases like States of Tamil Nadu, NCT of Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and others, the decisions taken by different States of not conducting final examinations. Petitioner also referred to and relied on judgment of this Court in Writ Petition (C) No. 566 of 2020 – Amit Bathla & Ors. Vs. Central Board of Secondary Education & Anr, where this Court noticed the notifications issued by CBSE cancelling the examinations for classes Xth/XIIth, which was scheduled from 01.07.2020 to 15.07.2020. petitioner in the writ petition has also prayed for a writ of Certiorari setting aside the impugned revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 issued by UGC and O.M. dated 06.07.2020 issued by Ministry of Human Resource Development. It has also prayed to clarify and declare that as per UGC guidelines dated 29.04.2020, each university may chart out its own plan of action with respect to terminal semester/final year examinations taking into consideration the issues pertaining to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 746 of 2020 – Yash Dubey and Anr. Vs. Union of India and Ors.

11. This writ petition has been filed by petitioner No.1, a final year law student and petitioner No. 2, an association of lawyers registered under Society Registration Act, 1860 namely, Youth Bar Association of India. The petitioners plead that cause of action for filing of the writ petition has arisen on 06.07.2020 when Ministry of Home Affairs issued notification dated 06.07.2020 and the UGC issued revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020. The petitioners’ case is that in view of increasing number of COVID-19 cases, many States like Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Punjab and Maharashtra have announced cancellation of examination of final year students and for promotion of the final year students. The petitioners further pleaded that on 11.07.2020, Tamil Nadu Government wrote a letter to HRD Minister informing that they are not in a position to conduct college examinations for the final year students. Another letter dated 11.07.2020 by Punjab Higher Education Minister written to HRD Minister is referred where all decisions dated 06.07.2020 was asked to be reviewed, decision of Government of Delhi dated 11.07.2020 to cancel all ongoing examination have also been referred to. Petitioners have prayed for setting aside the notification dated 06.07.2020 issued by Ministry of Home Affairs and revised UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020. The writ petitioners have also prayed for certain other payers to provide for alternative mode of assessment of the final year students in wake of COVID-19 outbreak; to call upon Universities to submit a set of parameters for evaluation of the students on the basis of students past performance and accordingly award provisional degrees to the students and to promote the students on the basis of the performance in the previous semesters by taking an aggregate score for all the semesters.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 741 of 2020 – West Bengal College and University Professors’ Association(WPCUPA) and Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors.

12. This writ petition has been filed by the West Bengal College & University Professors’ Association (WBCUPA) through its President. The petitioners pleaded that on 27.06.2020 in the State of West Bengal, all Vice Chancellors and Registrars of the Universities held a meeting with the Minister and arrived at a consensus for alternate method of marking of final semester examination in the State and decided to declare the result by 31.07.2020. A memorandum dated 27.06.2020 was issued by the Government of West Bengal, Department of Higher Education to the above effect. Petitioners case is that revised UGC guidelines is in abject contravention of students’ welfare since by the time these examinations through special chance will be conducted most of the Universities have closed their admission application for postgraduate courses. Withthe continuous spike in COVID-19 cases in the entire country including the State of West Bengal, situation will not at all be conducive to conduct offline examination by 30.09.2020. The petitioner also refers to letter dated 11.07.2020 written by Chief Minister of West Bengal to Hon’ble Prime Minister requesting to get the matter re-examined and restore the earlier advisory of UGC dated 29.04.2020. Petitioners have also referred to various representations made by various Universities from State of West Bengal to UGC to reconsider its decision to hold examinations. Petitioners in writ petition has prayed for Mandamus commanding the respondent No.1 to forthwith rescind and/or cancel and/or withdraw the letter dated 06.07.2020.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 745 of 2020 – Krushna Govind Waghmare and Ors. Vs. University Grant Commission and Ors.

13. This writ petition has been filed by five petitioners, who are final year law students of various educational institutions affiliated to Universities of Maharashtra. Petitioners’ case is that UGC before issuing the revised guidelines have not considered the deadly COVID-19 pandemic. Petitioners have also referred to cancellation of Xth and XIIth examinations by CBSE and ICSE. Petitioners have prayed for quashing the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 and has further prayed that this Court may be pleased to grant the benefit of decision dated 19.06.2020 (State of Maharashtra) to the students of professional courses and necessary directions to the respondent State may also be issued.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 794 of 2020 – Sarthak Mehta and Ors. Vs. University Grants Commission (UGC) and Ors.

14. This writ petition has been filed by three petitioners. Petitioner Nos. 1 and 2 are advocates and petitioner No. 3 is a final year law student studying in Pune. Petitioners’ case is that earlier UGC guidelines dated 29.04.2020 left the decision to take or not to take the examinations of the students with the Universities keeping in view the spread of COVID-19 whereas impugned guidelines dated 06.07.2020 have made it compulsory for the Universities to conduct final year examinations by the end of September, 2020 irrespective of the spread of COVID-19 in different regions/States. Petitioners’ case is that impugned guidelines is ultra vires to the Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. Petitioners have also prayed for quashing the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 and for quashing the O.M. dated 06.07.2020 of Ministry of Human Resource Development and letter dated 06.07.2020 and it has been further prayed that result of students be declared on the basis of previous semester/year performance/internal evaluation.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 814 of 2020 – Ritesh Anil Mahajan and Ors. Vs. The Maharashtra State Disaster Management Authority and Ors.

15. This petition has been filed by four petitioners out of which three are students and fourth petitioner is member of Senate of University at Jalgaon elected from the graduate’s constituency. The State Disaster Management Authority of the State of Maharashtra has been impleaded as respondent No.1, State of Maharashtra as respondent No.2 and UGC as respondent No. 3. The petitioners plead that the Ministry of Higher and Technical Education of the State of Maharashtra set up a State-level Committee headed by the Vice-Chancellor, Mumbai University in view of grave situation created by COVID-19 pandemic. The Committee submitted its report on 06.05.2020 recommending that the final year exams be conducted between 01.07.2020 to 31.07.2020. The statement of Chief Minister dated 31.05.2020 has been referred to where he declared that no examinations will be conducted for final year students and all students will be given marks by averaging the marks obtained in the previous semester examinations. The State Disaster Management Authority in its meeting dated 18.06.2020 took various decisions resolving that taking into consideration the state of COVID-19 in the State of Maharashtra, examination of final year professional courses cannot be arranged. With regard to non-professional courses, decision was also taken for declaring their result as per decision taken in the meeting. The State of Maharashtra issued a resolution dated 19.06.2020 regarding non-professional and professional courses, the methodology for declaring the result. The petitioners are challenging the decision taken by State Disaster Management Authority dated 18.06.2020 as well as the resolution of the State of Maharashtra dated 19.06.2020 and have prayed for setting aside the aforesaid two decisions.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 861 of 2020 -Souvik Pal Vs. The State of West Bengal

16. This petition has been filed by a final year B.Sc. student studying in a College of State University of West Bengal. The petitioner is challenging the decision dated 27.06.2020 issued by State Government of West Bengal regarding the undergraduate and postgraduate examinations, 2 020. The State of West Bengal vide its decision dated 27.06.2020 issued an advisory to the effect that for the evaluation of students in terminal semester /final year of the General Degree courses at undergraduate/postgraduate level, 80% weightage shall be given to the best aggregate percentage obtained by the candidate in any of the previous semesters’/years’ results and 20% to internal assessment during the current semester/year as adopted by the university. The petitioner in the writ petition has prayed for quashing the order dated 27.06.2020 and also prayed for a direction to the State of West Bengal and State Universities to comply with the UGC’s revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020, O.M. of Ministry of HRD dated 06.07.2020 and UGC’s letter dated 08.07.2020.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 862 of 2020 – Kalicharam Gajbhiye and Anr. vs. The Maharashtra State Disaster Management Authority and Ors.

17. This writ petition has been filed by two students, who are studying in a University in the State of Maharashtra. Petitioners have challenged the decision dated 18.06.2020 of the Maharashtra State Disaster Management Authority as well as the decision of the Government of Maharashtra dated 19.06.2020 and subsequent decision dated 13.07.2020 of the Maharashtra State Disaster Management Authority and further prayer was made that State of Maharashtra and State Universities therein be requested to comply with the UGC’s revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020,O.M. of HRD Ministry dated 06.07.2020 and UGC’s letter dated 08.07.2020.

SLP(C)No.10042(Diary No. 15056) of 2020 – Kajal Mishra and Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors.

18. This special leave petition has been filed by six petitioners challenging the judgment and common order dated 14.07.2020of the Division Bench of High Court of Delhi in Writ Petition (C) No. 3199 of 2020 -Prateek Sharma and Anr. Vs. Union of India and Anr. with other connected writ petitions. The petitioners were not party in the writ petition before the High Court. The High Court in its order dated 14.07.2020 noticed that entire scheme of examination has to be worked out afresh by the Delhi University and dates for conducting examinations of various undergraduate courses to be finalized. The Delhi High Court directed the University to issue a notification at the earliest placing on the record the revised schedule of the examination. The writ petition before the Delhi High Court is still pending and in pursuance of order dated 14.07.2020 the examinations in Open Book Examination (OBE) mode had already commenced. Petitioners’ case is that in batch of writ petitions filed in the Delhi High Court, the conduct of examination by online mode was also challenged. The petitioners plead that other Universities are evaluating their final year students through internal assessment and the students of Delhi University shall be deprived of the equal opportunity in respect of admission and post graduate employment opportunities etc.

19. In the writ petitions although no formal notice was issued but, in all writ petitions the respondents have appeared through counsel(except W.P.No.739 of 2020). In Writ Petition No.739 of 2020 all the States and Union Territories were impleaded as respondents in addition to University Grants Commission as respondent No.1, Ministry of Human Resource Development, respondent No.2, Ministry of Home Affairs, respondent No.3. The State of Maharashtra and NCT of Delhi appeared through their counsel and filed affidavits. The State of Orissa has also appeared through its Advocate General. We have not issued notice to all the States who were impleaded in Writ Petition No.739 of 2020. The State of Maharashtra, State of West Bengal, NCT of Delhi and State of Orissa have sufficiently presented the stand of the States and Union Territories. The above States/UTs have communicated the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India that they are unable to hold the examination due to spread of COVID-19. Before us the cause of States, power of States and States’ Disaster Management Authority have been sufficiently represented. We are, thus, of the view that for deciding this batch of cases it is not necessary to issue notice to all the States and Union Territories and the issues raised can be decided after hearing the respondents, Ministry of Human Resource Development, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, State of Maharashtra, State of West Bengal, NCT of Delhi and State of Orissa. We, thus, proceed to consider the submissions raised to decide the matter on merits.

20. As indicated above in Writ Petition No.724 of 2020 pleadings are complete and in Writ Petition No.739 of 2020 convenience compilation in two volumes has been filed by the learned counsel for the petitioners. It shall be sufficient to refer the pleadings in Writ Petition No. 724 of 2020 and convenience compilations for deciding all the issues raised before us.

21. For the writ petitioners, we have heard Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi, Senior Advocate, Shri Shyam Divan, Senior Advocate, Shri Jaideep Gupta, Senior Advocate, Shri Vinay Navare, Senior Advocate, Shri Kishore Lambat, Shri Alakh Alok Srivastava and other learned counsel.

22. We have heard Shri Tushar Mehta, learned solicitor General for University Grants Commission. We have heard Shri Arvind Datar, learned senior counsel for the State of Maharashtra, Shri K.V. Vishwanathan, learned senior counsel for the Government of NCT of Delhi, Shri Ashok Parija, Advocate-General, for the State of Odisha, Shri Kishore Dutta, learned Advocate General for the State of West Bengal. Ms. Meenakshi Arora, learned senior counsel has appeared for the petitioner in SLP(C)Diary No.15056 of 2020.

23. Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi appearing for the petitioner in Writ Petitioner in W.P.(C)No.746 of 2020 submits that revised UGC Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are in complete disagreement and have been issued in complete disregard with the earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020. The guidelines dated 29.04.2020 were advisory in nature and provided flexibility to the Universities to implement the guidelines in the best interest of students. The guidelines provided that in case the pandemic situation does not normalise the grading can be on the basis of internal evaluation and past performance of the student. Various State Governments including State of Maharashtra, State of West Bengal, NCT of Delhi and other States have expressed their inability to organise the examination in the wake of increase in COVID cases in the respective States. The deadline of 30.09.2020 is unrealistic and unattainable. The most of the Colleges/Universities/ Institutions have been converted into COVID Health Care Centres. Therefore, conducting of exams through offline mode will entail a huge risk of transmission of virus, it will be absolutely unjust to neglect the problems of adopting uniform online mode of exams and also the infrastructural disparities. The office memorandum issued by the Ministry of Human Resource Development dated 06.07.2020 is itself flawed and in complete disregard to the Ministry of Home Affairs guidelines dated 29.07.2020, which provide that in areas outside the Containment Zones, all activities will be permitted, except the Schools, Colleges, Educational and Coaching Institutions will remain closed till 31.08.2020. Section 72 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides that decisions taken and orders issued thereunder will have overriding effect. If a decision is taken by the appropriate authority under Act, 2005 regarding non-holding of examination, the same will operate and hold the field despite the provisions of the UGC Act. Section 12 of the UGC Act mandates that guidelines need to be framed in consultation with the Universities. All Universities were not consulted before issuing the impugned guidelines.

24. Dr. Singhvi has also referred to and relied on the decision taken on 13.07.2020 by the State Disaster Management Authority of the State of Maharashtra where decision was taken not to conduct the examination in the current circumstances. Dr. Singhvi submits that right to life and health is the right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Conducting of the examination involves huge amount of travel, huge use of public transport which are not possible in the present state of affairs in the various States including the State of Maharashtra. The present pandemic is a special situation which is state neutral. The University Grants Commission Act and the guidelines framed thereunder shall not have overriding effect on the action under the Act, 2005. The Disaster Management Act being a latter and special Act shall operate. He further submits that the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are manifestly arbitrary and liable to be set aside on this ground alone.

25. Shri Shyam Divan, learned senior counsel, appearing for the petitioner in Writ Petition No.739 of 2 02 0 submits that to elevate human life, fundamental norms have been engrafted in the regime of Disaster Management Act. There are decentralized units which may apply structured standard. He submits that students, teachers and their respective families are all homogeneous groups, they cannot be treated differently for the purpose of conducting final year/terminal semester exams by the UGC. Shri Divan, learned counsel for the petitioner referring to the Ministry of Home Affairs order dated 15.04.2020 contends that prohibited activities included “all educational, training, coaching institutions etc. shall remain closed”. He submits that the said prohibition is still continued and is operating till 31.08.2020 which does not permit holding of any exam. Referring to the earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020, Shri Divan submits that the guidelines were advisory in nature and there was flexibility at local level in the guidelines whereas the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 makes it compulsory to complete examination before 30.09.2020. Revised guidelines disregard the health factor. There is no statement in the revised guidelines that COVID-19 situation has improved.

26. Reverting to the Disaster Management Act, Shri Divan submits that disaster is still continuing, the State authorities under Disaster Management Act are equally empowered to take measures. Shri Divan further submits that letter issued by Ministry of Home Affairs permitting holding of examination cannot supersede the statutory provisions. There are issues of lack of appropriate infrastructure for conducting online examination, the impugned guidelines violate the right of students and their families. The guidelines are impractical and unclear. The order issued under the Disaster Management Act shall override the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020. The revised guidelines are manifestly arbitrary, inappropriate and violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India. The writ petitioner is an organisation which works towards the betterment of educational facilities for the students of India. The petitioner has written to Ministry of Human Resource Development on 07.07.2020 praying to reconsider the revised guidelines issued by the Ministry.

27. Shri Arvind Datar, learned senior counsel appearing for the State of Maharashtra, submits that UGC has no legislative competence with regard to conduct of examination. It is submitted that revised guidelines have been issued under University Grants Commission Act, 1956 which is referable to Entry 66 of List I of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which is confined to “co-ordination and determination of standards”. Shri Datar placed reliance on the Constitution Bench judgment of this Court in Modern Dental College and Research Centre and others vs. State of Madhya Pradesh and others, (2016) 7 SCC 353. Shri Datar submits that UGC can lay down only the qualification. Shri Datar submits that not holding final examination and awarding Degree on the basis of earlier semester’s performance is not diluting the standards of education in any manner. The students have completed five semesters (in the State of Maharashtra) by March, 2020 and for final semester internal assessment is also over, hence, the students could have been promoted on the basis of earlier assessments and there is nothing arbitrary in giving Degree to the students on the basis of earlier results. The directions of UGC to hold examination by 30.09.2020 is completely beyond the power of UGC. Revised guidelines do not take into consideration the different situations of different States. In the State of Maharashtra situation is grave in view of phenomenal increase in the COVID-19 cases. The University Grants Commission cannot fix the date for holding examination. In the city of Pune itself which is the hub of the education more than half of the students have left for their home and hostels have been vacated. There are about 7.35 lacs non-professional and 2.84 lacs are professional students, public transport being not in operation it is difficult for the students to reach at the examination centres. Revised guidelines issued by the UGC are violative of Article 14 because they apply throughout the India and give one fix date, i.e., 30.09.2020 irrespective of the conditions prevailing in the State.

28. Shri Datar further submits that guidelines are violative of Section 12 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. Section 12 requires consultation with various Universities and other bodies. Other bodies shall include State Disaster Management Authority. There has been no consultation as per Section 12. The State of Maharashtra was not consulted before issuing the revised guidelines, the guidelines are, thus, not in accordance with Section 12. Shri Datar submits that provisions of Disaster Management Act will have overriding effect. He placed reliance on Section 72 of the Act, 2005. Section 72 shall override not only the provisions of Maharashtra University Act but also University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and also the decision taken and orders issued under Act, 1956. In the circumstances decision taken by the State Disaster Management Authority in the State of Maharashtra in not holding examination shall operate and hold the field despite the provisions of UGC Act and the revised guidelines. Shri Datar has also referred to Section 18 and 24 of Act, 2005 and submits that earlier Guidelines dated 2 9.04.2 02 0 were advisery in nature. Shri Datar has also referred to UGC (Minimum Standards of Instruction for the Grant of the First Degree through Formal Education) Regulations, 2003. The proposal of Maharashtra Government to grant Degree on the basis of first five semesters and internal assessment is in accordance with Regulations, 2003. Shri Datar has referred to and relied on the Government Resolution dated 19.06.2020 as well as the decision dated 18.06.2020 of State Disaster Management Authority.

29. Shri Ashok Parija, learned Advocate General for the State of Odisha adopts the submission of Shri Arvind Datar. He submits that it is not possible to hold the final examination by 30.09.2020. Shri Parija submits that there are several reasons which make it impossible to take physical examination in the present scenario. The public transport is not functioning, Schools and Colleges are closed from 25.03.2020 and students have gone back to their native places. Several Colleges are presently being used by the District Administrations as Quarantine Centres, COVID Care Home, COVID Care Centre, COVID Care Hospital, etc. COVID-19 infection is spreading rapidly in the State of Odisha. It is not feasible to conduct online examination also since most of the students belong to the lower and medium income group and do not have desktop or laptop or decent smart phone at home. The Minister, Ministry of Higher Education, Government of Odisha has issued instructions for adopting alternative procedure for undergraduate or post-graduate final year or final semester students which is in consonance with UGC guidelines dated 29.04.2020. To await indefinitely for conducting of examination shall delay the academic calendar.

30. Shri Jaideep Gupta, learned senior counsel appearing for the petitioner in Writ Petition No.741 of 2020 submits that on 27.06.2020 an advisory was issued by the State of Bengal to the effect that students in terminal semester/final year of the General Degree courses at under-Graduate/post-Graduate level, 80% weightage should be considered on the basis of the best aggregate percentage obtained by the candidates in any of the previous semesters’/years’ results and 20% on internal assessment during the current semester/year. The result of final year/semester would be declared by 31.07.2020.

31. Shri Gupta submits that UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020 is not a statutory document but it is an executive instruction. He submits that it is unreasonable to direct the State to hold the examination by 30.09.2020. He submits that in the State of West Bengal most of the Universities are not the Campus University but a large number of Colleges are affiliated and local trains and metros are not working. Several districts are also affected by Super Cyclone Amphan. He submitted that no physical examination is possible in the State of West Bengal. There is lack of digital infrastructure. The guidelines are violative of Section 12 of Act, 1956 since relevant fact is not taken into consideration. Section 12 of the UGC Act requires consultation which means effective consultation.

32. Shri Kishore Dutta, learned Advocate General, has appeared for the State of West Bengal. Shri Dutta submits that UGC has not taken into consideration the pandemic. He submits that public health has to be taken into consideration. He has also referred to Article 39(e),41, 45, 46 and 47 of the Constitution of India. He submits that every State has peculiar problems and UGC could not have taken a decision without consulting the States.

33. Shri K.V. Vishwanathan, learned senior counsel for NCT of Delhi submits that on 11.07.2020, Deputy Chief Minister wrote that because of pandemic, examination cannot be held. He submits that online infrastructure was also not sufficient. Shri Vishwanathan submits that Entry 66 of List I of 7th Schedule has no role to play. The students have no access to the books, online has its own shortcomings. The guidelines dated 29.04.2020 were only advisory and now guidelines dated 06.07.2020 have been made compulsory. He submits that guidelines dated 06.07.2020 has no statutory force. Shri Vishwanathan submits that there is no rational distinction between pre-final or final examination and it is easier to evolve mechanism for final examination. Shri Vishwanathan submits that this Court may consider for appointing an independent commission for exploring the solution.

34. Shri Alakh Alok Srivastava, counsel appearing for the petitioner submits that guidelines dated 06.07.2020 have been issued in violation of Section 12. He submits that words “other bodies” occurring in Section 12 means health experts also. He submits that there was no pan-India consultation before issuing guidelines. He further submits that the guidelines issued under Section 12 are only advisory. Referring to Section 14 of UGC Act, he submits that UGC has right only to stop the grant. He submits that Section 22 right of conferring or granting degrees shall be exercised only by a University, who is authorised to confer the Degrees.

35. Referring to Regulation 6.3 of Regulation 6 of 2003 Regulations, Shri Srivastava submits that nature of final examination, whether written or oral or both, in respect of each course, ought to have been made known to the students at the beginning of the academic session. He submits that there is violation of Article 14 of the Constitution. Shri Srivastava has submitted that criteria as suggested by the State of Madhya Pradesh which is at page 4 63 of the compilation Volume II should be accepted and necessary direction be issued accordingly.

36. Shri Kishor Lambat, counsel appearing in Writ Petition No. 745 of 2020 submitted that when not even50% syllabus is complete how the examination can be held. The Bar Council of India has resolved to postpone the All India Bar Examination keeping in view the present pandemic. UGC has not taken opinions and advice of relevant bodies. Online examination is not feasible in the present situation.

37. Ms. Meenakshi Arora, learned senior counsel appearing in SLP, filed against the order of the Delhi High Court contends that present system of online examination does not provide a level playing field, left over students will be given chance, it will delay the whole process. She submitted that Delhi High Court in issuing impugned order dated 14.07.2020 has not considered the challenges to the online examination. She further does not dispute that in pursuance of the impugned direction of the Delhi High Court online examinations have commenced by the Delhi University.

38. Shri P.S. Narasimha has appeared for the writ petitioners, the students, who prayed for the enforcement of UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020. He submits that majority of students want examination to be held. He submits that under-Graduate Degree is minimum qualification for various employment and the final examination when takes place then students are granted the Degree which is most relevant for grading the students. Final evaluation for the students who want to go abroad is necessary. The students must have chance to improve in final year examination. Shri Narasimha submits that University has time to cope with the health situation. He submits that in the pandemic life has to go on, thus, methods have to be found. The methodology of evaluation is a part of standard of education which is in the domain of the UGC. He submits that conduct of final examination is necessary.

39. Shri Vinay Navare, learned senior counsel who appears for the writ petitioners who have challenged the decision of the State Disaster Management Authority of the State of Maharashtra and have prayed for enforcement of the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 submits that holding of examination is legal, ethical and academic. He submits that the students saying for conferring the Degree without holding examination should not be heard under Article 32. The State Government cannot say that examination be not held. He submits that earlier in the State of Maharashtra Vice Chancellors have taken a decision to hold final year examination which was made a political issue by Yuva Sena. He submits that there is no power in the State in deciding that Degree be given without examination. He submits that the State has no power to issue any direction not to conduct any examination. Shri Navare, however, has fairly submitted that the date 30.09.2020 has to be moderated in the peculiar situation of a State.

40. Shri Tushar Mehta, learned Solicitor General appearing for University Grants Commission submits that judicial review of the guidelines of the UGC dated 06.07.2020 is permissible only on limited grounds. He submits that there are no sufficient grounds to grant judicial review to the decision of the UGC. He has referred to UGC guidelines dated 29.04.2020 and submitted that the schedule of conducting of examination was already mentioned in the guidelines. He submitted that the State level committee founded by the Minister, Higher Technical Education for Government of Maharashtra has submitted report dated 06.05.2020 where it was recommended that final examination be held. He submits that the State has also accepted the above recommendations. Referring to 06.07.2020 decision of Ministry of Home Affairs, Shri Mehta submits that if authority has power to do something, the form is not material. He submits that under UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020only final year examinations have to be held which is a reasonable recommendation and there being option of offline, online and hybrid mode, the reasonable flexibility was provided, sufficient time was also given in the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 for conducting the examination and under the guidelines an opportunity was given to any student who fails to appear, to sit in special examination even after 30.09.2020 which was reasonable and protected the interest of the students. He submits that the order dated 06.07.2020 issued by Ministry of Human Resource Development, guidelines for conducting examination were issued after application of mind and due consideration of ground situation. The standard operating procedures for conducting examination were vetted by the Ministry of Family Health and Welfare. The date 30.09.2020 was fixed for completion of examination in the larger interest of the students to take care of the future prospects of the students. Referring to the order dated 29.07.2020 issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India and the guidelines providing that any area outside the containment zone, School, Colleges and Coaching Institutions shall remain closed till 31.08.2020, he submit that it could not come in the way of conducting examination since the Ministry of Home Affairs have already granted exemption for conducting the examination despite the closure of Schools, Colleges and Coaching Institutions. Shri Mehta submits that there are large number of Universities in the entire country who have conducted their examinations and several Universities are proceeding with the holding of the examination. It is only the few States who have not conducted the examination. Shri Mehta submits that University Grants Act is referable to Entry 66 List I of 7th Schedule and no contrary decision of the State can stand in its way. Referring to Regulations, 2003, Shri Mehta submits that as per Regulations which are statutory, the Universities are obliged to adopt the guidelines issued by the UGC. Referring to the decisions of Ministry of Home Affairs, Shri Mehta submits that in the case of National disaster, Centre has taken care of and in the given set of facts the State can give suggestion to change the schedule i.e. change the deadline to hold the examination i.e. 30.09.2020. He submits that deadline was issued in the interest of the students.

41. For the Union of India Shri S.V. Raju, learned Additional Solicitor General has appeared. Shri Raju submits that under the guidelines issued along with the order of the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs which prohibited opening of Schools, Colleges and Institutions till 31.08.2020, there is no prohibition in any manner in conduct of the examination. He submits that closure of the Schools, Colleges and Institutions has nothing to do with the conduct of the examinations and normally final examinations are conducted only after teaching is over i.e. after Colleges are closed. He further submitted that it is not necessary that the examination must be held where teaching is imparted or where attendance took place. It can also take place in hall unconnected with the Schools, Colleges and Institutions where the teaching was imparted. He submits that the Ministry of Home Affairs has duly examined the request of Ministry of Human Resource Development and respondent on 06.07.2020, taking into consideration the academic interest of large number of students it was decided to permit the conduct of final examinations.

42. Learned counsel for the parties have referred to and relied on several judgments of this Court which shall be referred to while considering the submissions of the parties.

43. We have considered the submissions of the learned counsel for the parties and perused the material on record.

44. From the submissions of the parties following issues arise for consideration:

(1) Whether the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 requiring the Universities to complete terminal semester/final year examination by 30.09.2020 is beyond the domain of the UGC and does not relate to “co-ordination and determination of standards in institution of higher education”?

(2) Whether the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 issued by the UGC are non-statutory, advisory only and contrary to earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020?(3) Whether the UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India?

(4) Whether the UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are violative of Article 21 of the Constitution of India and the guidelines have been issued disregarding the pandemic COVID-19?

(5) Whether the guidelines of the UGC dated 06.07.2020 are liable to be set aside on the ground of non-compliance of Section 12 of UGC Act, 1956?

(6) Whether the State and State’s Disaster Management Authority in exercise of jurisdiction under Disaster Management Act, 2005 can take a decision not to hold examination by 30.09.2020 disregarding the direction in the UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020?

(7) Whether the State or State Disaster Management Authority, in exercise of jurisdiction under Act, 2005, can take a decision to award degrees to final year/final semester students by promoting them on the basis of criteria of assessment formulated by the State/Universities on the result of previous semesters/exams and internal assessment of final year/terminal semester in disregard to the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 which require holding of examination of final year/terminal semester by 30.09.2020?

Issue No.1

45. We, in the present batch of cases are concerned with examinations by the Universities and the degrees to be conferred to graduates and postgraduates. A University is an institution of higher education. Education plays a very significant role in development of personality of an individual as well as in the progress and development of a country. After independence of our country, looking to the pivotal role of higher education, the Government of India constituted a Commission known as “University Education Commission” with Dr. S. Radhakrishnan as Chairman. The Commission submitted a report, which mentioned “Universities as the organs of Civilisation”. The report emphasised on the need for higher standards in Universities dealing with standards of teaching and examinations. The Commission recorded its views in the following words:-

“The need for High Standards.

Introduction – It is the primary duty of a university to maintain the highest standards of its teaching and examinations. A university is a place of higher education where the personality and capacities of the students are developed to the utmost by teachers who should themselves be at work at the frontiers of knowledge in their respective fields. The success of a university is to be judged as much by the type of graduate it turns out as by the amount and quality of research contributed by its teachers and research students. It must be clearly recognized that there is no conflict involved between the twofold function of a university to educate its members and to advance the frontiers of knowledge – the two functions are, in fact, complementary. Unless high standards of teaching and examinations are maintained, research will suffer, since research can continue uninterruptedly only if there is a regular supply of graduates well prepared by general education for specialized research work. On the other hand, if research is neglected by teachers, their teaching will lack vitality and will rapidly become stale. A degree must always be what a university makes it by the kind of teaching it imparts and the type of intellectual and social life it provides for its members. If our universities are to be the makers of future leaders of thought and action in the country, as they should be, our degrees must connote a high standard of scholarly achievement in our graduates.”

46. The Parliament enacted the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 (hereinafter referred to as “UGC Act, 1956”) to make provision for the coordination and determination of standards in Universities and for that purpose to establish a University Grants Commission. The UGC Act, 1956 is referable to Entry66 of List I of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution which provides as under:-

“66. Co-ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions.”

47. The education including Universities both in Government of India Act, 1935 and the Constitution of India was a State subject. Entry 11 in the State List prior to Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 provided:-

“………Education including Universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I and Entry 25 of List III”.

48. By Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 w.e.f. 03.01.1977, Entry 11 from List II was omitted and was transferred and combined with subject of Entry 25 of List III. Entry 25 List III as after amendment by Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 is to the following effect:-II

25. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I; vocational and technical training of labour.”

49. Education including university education, thus, is now a concurrent subject where both State legislature as well as Parliament have legislative competence. Entry 11 of List II as existed prior to Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 as well as Entry 25 of List III is subject to the provisions of Entry 66 of List I, which is the Constitutional Scheme delineated by Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. The inter-play with regard to legislation by State referable to earlier Entry 11 of List II as well as Entry 25 of List III with that of Entry 66 of List I came for consideration before this Court in several cases. The Constitution Bench of this Court in Gujarat University and Anr. vs. Shri Krishna Ranganath Mudholkar and Ors., AIR 1963 SC 703 laid down that although there may be overlapping between a State Legislation referable to Entry 11 of List II and Parliament legislation referable to Entry 66 List I but to the extent of overlapping the power conferred by Item 66 of List I must prevail over power of the State. In paragraph 2 3 of the judgment, the Constitution Bench Laid down:-

“……………………………Use of the expression “subject to” in item 11 of List II of the Seventh Schedule clearly indicates that legislation in respect of excluded matters cannot be undertaken by the State Legislatures. In Hingir-Rampur Coal Co. Ltd. vs. State of Orissa [1961] 2 SCR 537: (AIR 1961 SC 459), this Court in considering the import of the expression “subject to” used in an entry in List II, in relation to an entry in List I observed that to the extent of the restriction imposed by the use of the expression “subject to” in an entry in List II, the power is taken away from the State Legislature. Power of the State to legislate in respect of education including Universities must to the extent to which it is entrusted to the Union Parliament, whether such power is exercised or not, be deemed to be restricted…………………………”

50. A Constitution Bench of this Court in Dr. Preeti Srivastava and Anr. vs. State of M.P. and Ors., (1999) 7 SCC 120 had occasion to consider the interplay between Entry 66 of List I and that of Entry 25 of List III. The Constitution Bench had occasion to consider a Government order dated 11.10.1994 issued by the State of Uttar Pradesh where for admission in Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination percentage of 45% marks was fixed for the general category candidates, cut-off for reserved category candidates, i.e., Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes etc., was fixed at 35% and thereafter, by another G.O. dated 31.8.1995 the State of Uttar Pradesh completely did away with a cut-off percentage of marks in respect of the reserved category candidates, which was challenged before this Court. This Court held that while laying down minimum qualifying marks for admission to the Post Graduate Courses, it was not open to the State Government to say that there will be no minimum qualifying marks for the reserved category candidates in Dr. Sadhna Devi and Ors. vs. State of U.P. and Ors., (1997) 3 SCC 90. The State of U.P. issued an ordinance on 15.01.1997 revising the minimum qualifying marks for the reserved category candidates from 35% to 20%, which ordinance was challenged before this Court by means of writ petition under Article 32. Similarly, State of Madhya Pradesh also by Government Order directed the minimum qualifying marks for the reserved category candidates be fixed 20% for Scheduled Casts and 15% for Scheduled Tribes, which was also under challenge. This court in the above context had occasion to consider the Regulations framed under the Medical Council Act, 1956, a Parliamentary legislation, which Regulation provided standard of qualification for admission in a medical course. There being conflict between the criteria fixed by the State of U.P. and State of M.P. and those fixed by Regulations under Indian Medical Council Act, the controversy was finally determined by the Constitution Bench, in paragraph 35, following was laid down:-

“35. The legislative competence of the Parliament and the legislatures of the States to make laws under Article 246 is regulated by the VIIth Schedule to the Constitution. In the VIIth Schedule as originally in force. Entry 11 of List-II gave to the States an exclusive power to legislate on

“education including universities subject to the provisions of retries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List-I and Entry 25 of List-III”.

Entry 11 of List-II was deleted and Entry 25 of List-III was amended with effect from 3-1-1976 as a result of the Constitution 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. The present Entry 25 in the Concurrent List is as follows:

“25. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 list-I: vocational and technical training of labour.”

Entry 25 is subject, inter alia, to Entry 66 of List-I. Entry 66 of List-I is as follows :

“66. Co-ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions.”

Both the Union as well as the States have the power to legislate on education including medical education, subject, inter alia, to Entry 66 of List-I which deals with laying down standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions as also co-ordination of such standards. A State has, therefore, the right to control education including medical education so long as the field is not occupied by any Union Legislation. Secondly, the State cannot, while controlling education in the State, impinge on standards in intuitions for higher education. Because this is exclusively within the purview of the Union Government. Therefore, while prescribing the criteria for admission to the institutions for higher education including higher medical education, the State cannot adversely affect the standards laid down by the Union of India under Entry 66 of List-I. Secondly, while considering the cases on the subject it is also necessary to remember that from 1977 education including, inter alia, medical and university education, is now in the Concurrent List so that the Union can legislate on admission criteria also. If it does so, the State will not be able to legislate in this field, except as provided in Article 254.”

51. Constitution Bench had also occasion to elaborate on different aspects of “standards of education”. This Court held that the standards of examination is also one of the relevant factor in standards of education. In paragraph 36, following has been laid down:-

“36. It would not be correct to say that the norms for admission have no connection with the standard of education, or that the rules for admission are covered only by Entry 25 of List-III. Norms of admission can have a direct impact on the standards of education. Of course, there can be rules for admission which are consistent with or do not affect adversely the standards of education prescribed by the Union in exercise of powers under Entry 66 of List-I. For example, a State may, for admission to the post-graduate medical courses, lay down qualifications in addition to those prescribed under Entry 66 of List-I. This would be consistent with promoting higher standards for admission to the higher educational courses. But any lowering of the norms laid down can, and do have an adverse affect on the standards of education in the institutes of higher education. Standards of education in an institution or college depend on various factors. Some of these are :

(1) The calibre of the teaching staff;

(2) A proper syllabus designed to achieve a high level of education in the given span of time;

(3) The student-teacher ratio;

(4) The ratio between the students and the hospital beds available to each student;

(5) The calibre of the students admitted to the institution;

(6) Equipment and laboratory facilities, or hospital facilities for training in the case of medical colleges;

(7) Adequate accommodation for the college and the attached hospital; and

(8) The standard of examinations held including the manner in which the papers are set and examined and the clinical performance is judged.”

52. A Three Judge Bench of this Court had occasion to consider all legislative entries pertaining to education including University education in Professor Yashpal and Anr. vs. State of Chhattisgarh and Ors., (2005) 5 SCC 420. This court laid down following in paragraphs 33, 34 and 35:-“

33. The consistent and settled view of this Court, therefore, is that in spite of incorporation of Universities as a legislative head being in the State List, the whole gamut of the University which will include teaching, quality of education being imparted, curriculum, standard of examination and evaluation and also research activity being carried on will not come within the purview of the State legislature on account of a specific Entry on co- ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical education being in the Union List for which the Parliament alone is competent. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to ensure that proper standards are maintained in institutions for higher education or research throughout the country and also uniformity in standards is maintained.

34. In order to achieve the aforesaid purpose, the Parliament has enacted the University Grants Commission Act. First para of the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 (for short “UGC Act”) is illustrative and consequently it is being reproduced below :

“The Constitution of India vests Parliament with exclusive authority in regard to ‘co-ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions’. It is obvious that neither co-ordination nor determination of standards is possible unless the Central Government has some voice in the determination of standards of teaching and examination in Universities, both old and new. It is also necessary to ensure that the available resources are utilized to the best possible effect. The problem has become more acute recently on account of the tendency to multiply Universities. The need for a properly constituted Commission for determining and allocating to Universities funds made available by the Central Government has also become more urgent on this account.”

35. In the second para it is said that the Commission will also have the power to recommend to any University the measures necessary for the reform and improvement of University education and to advise the University concerned upon the action to be taken for the purpose of implementing such recommendation. The Commission will act as an expert body to advise the Central Government on problems connected with the co- ordination of facilities and maintenance of standards in Universities.”

53. In Maa Vaishno Devi Mahila Mahavidyalaya vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Ors., (2013) 2 SCC 617,this Court had occasion to consider the provisions of National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993 and the role of the State and Universities in the above regard. In paragraph 59, this court held that NCTE is constituted under the Central Act with the responsibility of maintaining standard of education hence the State and Universities cannot lay down any guideline or policy which would be in conflict with the Central statute or the standards laid down by the Central body. In paragraph 59, following has been laid down:-

“59. The above enunciated principles clearly show that the Council is the authority constituted under the Central Act with the responsibility of maintaining education of standards and judging upon the infra-structure and facilities available for imparting such professional education. Its opinion is of utmost importance and shall take precedence over the views of the State as well as that of the University. The concerned Department of the State and the affiliating University have a role to play but it is limited in its application. They cannot lay down any guideline or policy which would be in conflict with the Central statute or the standards laid down by the Central body. State can frame its policy for admission to such professional courses but such policy again has to be in conformity with the directives issued by the Central body. In the present cases, there is not much conflict on this issue, but it needs to be clarified that while the State grants its approval, and University its affiliation, for increased intake of seats or commencement of a new course/college, its directions should not offend and be repugnant to what has been laid down in the conditions for approval granted by the Central authority or Council. What is most important is that all these authorities have to work ad idem as they all have a common object to achieve i.e. of imparting of education properly and ensuring maintenance of proper standards of education, examination and infrastructure for betterment of educational system. Only if all these authorities work in a coordinated manner and with cooperation, will they be able to achieve the very object for which all these entities exist.”

54. In another judgment of this Court in University Grants Commission and Anr. vs. Neha Anil Bobde (Gadekar), (2013) 10 SCC 519, the qualifying criteria fixed by the UGC came for consideration. Bombay High Court had ruled out that UGC lacked the competence to fix the aggregate marks as the final qualifying criteria after the candidates obtained the minimum marks prescribed before the declaration of result of N.E.T. examination. The judgment of the Bombay High Court was in appeal before this Court where this Court categorically laid down that UGC being an expert body is entrusted with duty to take such steps as it may think fit for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in the University. In paragraph 22, following was laid down :-

“22. We have elaborately referred to various statutory provisions which would clearly indicate that the UGC as an expert body has been entrusted by UGC Act the general duty to take such steps as it may think fit for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in Universities. It is also duty bound to perform such functions as may be prescribed or as may be deemed necessary by the Commission for advancing the cause of higher education in India. The UGC has also got the power to define the qualification that should ordinarily be required for any person to be appointed to the teaching staff of the University and to regulate the maintenance of standards and coordination of work and faculties in the Universities.”

55. This Court further held that in academic matters unless there is a clear statutory violation, this Court shall keep their hands off since the issues fall within the domain of the experts. In paragraph 31, following was laid down:-

“31. We are of the view that, in academic matters, unless there is a clear violation of statutory provisions, the Regulations or the Notification issued, the Courts shall keep their hands off since those issues fall within the domain of the experts. This Court in University of Mysore vs. C.D. Govinda Rao, AIR 1965 SC 491Tariq Islam vs. Aligarh Muslim University (2001) 8 SCC 546 and Rajbir Singh Dalal vs. Chaudhary Devi Lal University (2008) 9 SCC 284, has taken the view that the Court shall not generally sit in appeal over the opinion expressed by expert academic bodies and normally it is wise and safe for the Courts to leave the decision of academic experts who are more familiar with the problem they face, than the Courts generally are. UGC as an expert body has been entrusted with the duty to take steps as it may think fit for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in the University. For attaining the said standards, it is open to the UGC to lay down any “qualifying criteria”, which has a rational nexus to the object to be achieved, that is for maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research. Candidates declared eligible for lectureship may be considered for appointment as Assistant Professors in Universities and colleges and the standard of such a teaching faculty has a direct nexus with the maintenance of standards of education to be imparted to the students of the universities and colleges. UGC has only implemented the opinion of the Experts by laying down the qualifying criteria, which cannot be considered as arbitrary, illegal or discriminatory or violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.”

56. Now, we come to the Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020, which is under challenge before us. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 were issued in continuation to earlier Guidelines dated 29.04.2020. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 provided that Universities are required to complete the examination by the end of September, 2020 in offline (pen and paper)/online / blended (offline and online mode) all terminal semester/final year examinations 2020. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 intended that it is only after holding of terminal semester/final year examination, Universities may proceed to grant degrees. The challenge to Guidelines is on the ground that Guidelines are beyond the domain of UGC and does not relate to “co-ordination and determination of standards in institution of higher education”. Undoubtedly, the UGC Act has been enacted in reference to Entry 66 List I where the preamble of the Act provides:-

“An Act to make provision for the coordination and determination of standards in Universities and for that purpose, to establish a University Grants Commission.”

57. Section 12 which enumerates the functions of the Commission provides that it shall be the general duty of the Commission to take, in consultation with the Universities or other bodies concerned, all such steps as it may think fit for the promotion and coordination of University education and for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in Universities. The use of expression “examination” in Section 12 itself makes it clear that steps taken by the UGC under Section 12 may relate to the “examination as well”. In Professor Yashpal (supra) in paragraph 32, this Court has held that the standards of education in an institution depends on various factors, one of which includes “the standard of examinations held including the manner in which the papers are set and examined”.

58. The sheet anchor of the argument as stressed by Shri Arvind P. Datar is the Constitution Bench judgment of this Court in Modern Dental College and Research Centre and Ors. vs. State of Madhya Pradesh and Ors., (2016) 7 SCC 353. Learned senior counsel has relied on observation of this Court in paragraph 101. Relevant observation made in paragraph 101 is as follows:-

“101. To our mind, Entry 66 in List I is a specific Entry having a very specific and limited scope. It deals with coordination and determination of standards in institution of higher education or research as well as scientific and technical institutions. The words “coordination and determination of standards” would mean laying down the said standards. Thus, when it comes to prescribing the standards for such institutions of higher learning, exclusive domain is given to the Union. However, that would not include conducting of examination, etc. and admission of students to such institutions or prescribing the fee in these institutions of higher education, etc……..”

59. To comprehend the import of the above observation made by this Court, we need to look into the issue, which has arisen for consideration in above case. The enactment, which came for consideration before this Court in the above case was “Niji Vyavasayik Shikshan Sanstha (Pravesh Ka Viniyaman Avam Shulk Ka Nirdharan) Adhiniyam, 2007”. The aforesaid Act, 2007 as well as the Madhya Pradesh Private Medical and Dental Postgraduate Course Entrance Examination Rules, 2009 came to be challenged before the High Court and the High court upheld the provisions of the Act and Rules, which came to be questioned before this Court in Modern Dental College & Research Centre (supra). The Constitution Bench itself in paragraph 83 of the judgment has noted that the State enactments does not run foul of any of the existing central law. Paragraph 83 of the judgment needs to be quoted, which is to the following effect:-

“83. The enactment in question does not run foul of any of the existing Central laws. As far as the introduction of a CET at a national level is concerned, the same was not enforced during the period of operation of the State statute. In any event, there being no Regulations regarding fixation or determination of fees of these institutions to ensure that the same does not allow commercialisation or profiteering, the State Legislature was well competent to enact provisions regarding the same.”

60. The issue, which was raised before the Constitution Bench was whether the subject matter of admissions was covered exclusively by Entry 66 of List I, thereby the States had no legislative competence to deal with the subject of admissions or determination of fee to be charged by professional educational institutions. The said issue has been noticed in paragraph 98 in following words:-

“98. The next issue to be considered is whether the subject-matter of admissions was covered exclusively by List I Entry 66, thereby the States having no legislative competence whatsoever to deal with the subject of admissions or determination of fee to be charged by professional educational institutions.”

61. In paragraph 101, the Constitution Bench repelled the above submission and in the above context the observations were made “however, that would not include conducting of examination, etc. and admission of students to such institutions or prescribing the fee in these institutions of higher education, etc.”

62. The Constitution Bench in paragraph 101 has used the expression “not include conducting of examination etc.” In the present case, there is no claim on behalf of the UGC that it is the UGC which shall conduct the examination of the graduate and postgraduate students. The examinations are to be conducted by the respective Universities only. The above observations made by Constitution Bench in paragraph 101 as relied by learned senior counsel for petitioner, cannot be treated to be laying down any preposition that University Grants Commission has no competence to lay down any standards with regard to examination. We, thus, are of the considered opinion that the Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are not beyond the domain of the UGC and they relate to coordination and determination of standards in institutions of higher education.

Issue No.2

63. The issue consists of two parts, i.e., (i) whether the Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are non-statutory and advisory only and (ii) the Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are contrary to earlier Guidelines dated 29.04.2020. We may take up the second part first. The Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 were issued with heading “UGC Guidelines on Examinations and Academic Calendar in view of COVID-19 pandemic and subsequent lockdown”. With regard to examination of 2019-2020, several Universities have conducted examinations full or partial, some of the Universities were yet to commence their examination. At the outbreak of pandemic COVID-19, the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs issued various orders and had taken measures to prevent its spread across the country including lockdown where several activities were prohibited due to the situation as developed from the last week of March, 2020. Neither any teaching could be done in the colleges/ Universities nor any examination could be held for the months together. Since the examinations could not be held in the month of March to June, 2 020, by which period usually the examinations of all Universities are completed and results are declared, UGC came with Guidelines on Examinations and Academic Calendar for the Universities. The Guidelines begins with following introduction:-

“Introduction

The whole world, including India, is passing through unprecedented difficult times due to the outbreak of COVID-19 pandemic. As all universities and colleges are closed due to national lockdown, the teaching – learning process and research activities have been badly disrupted. The schedule of Terminal Semester examinations has also got disturbed. In such scenario, it is joint responsibility of all the stakeholders to manage multiple key issues relating to academic activities in the institutions. While it is crucial to follow measures taken by the Government to contain the spread of COVID-19, it is also important to continue the educational process making effective use of technology and other available options. Future may have many uncertainties but difficult times demand quick appropriate decisions. We must be optimistic that we can reinvent work again and engage the students in effective and constructive ways. The University Grants Commission (UGC) has been engaged with this issue and contemplating measures to face the challenge of safeguarding the interests of the academic fraternity in general and students in particular. Confronted with vital issues of examinations and academic calendar, UGC constituted an Expert Committee to deliberate on these issues and make recommendations to address them.”

64. The University Grants Commission has constituted an Expert Committee and it was on the basis of report submitted by Expert Committee Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 was issued. It is relevant to extract following portion of the guidelines:-

“1. Maintaining the sanctity of academic expectations and integrity of examination process, the universities may adopt alternative and simplified modes and methods of examinations to complete the process in shorter period of time in compliance with CBCS requirements as prescribed by UGC from time to time. These may include MCQ/ OMR based examinations, Open Book Examination, Open Choices, assignment/ presentation-based assessments etc.

2. The universities may adopt efficient and innovative modes of examinations by reducing the time from 3 hours to 2 hours assigned to each examination, if need arises but without compromising the quality, so that the process may be completed in multiple shifts and, at the same time, sanctity to evaluate the performance of a student is also maintained.

3. The universities may conduct Terminal / Intermediate Semester / Year examinations in offline / online mode, as per their Ordinances/ Rules and Regulations, Scheme of Examinations, observing the guidelines of “social distancing” and keeping in view the support system available with them and ensuring fair opportunity to all students.

4. Terminal semester / year examinations for PG/ UG courses/ programmes may be conducted by universities as suggested in the academic calendar keeping in mind the protocols of “social distancing”.

5. For intermediate semester/year students, the universities may conduct examinations, after making a comprehensive assessment of their level of preparedness, residential status of the students, status of COVID-19 pandemic spread in different region / state and other factors.

In case the situation does not appear to be normal in view of COVID-19, in order to maintain “social distancing”, safety and health of the students, grading of the students could be composite of 50% marks on the basis of the pattern of internal evaluation adopted by the universities and the remaining 50% marks can be awarded on the basis of performance in previous semester only (if available). The internal evaluation can be continuous evaluation, prelims, mid-semester, internal assignments or whatever name is given for student progression.

In the situations where previous semester or previous year marks are not available, particularly in the first year of annual pattern of examinations, 100%evaluation may be done on the basis of internal evaluation.

If the student wishes to improve the grades, he/she may appear in special exams for such subjects during next semester.

This provision for intermediate semester examinations is only for the current academic session (2019-20) in view of COVID-19 pandemic, while maintaining safety and health of all the stakeholders and sanctity and quality of examinations.”

65. The Guidelines also contains academic calendar suggested for the academic session 2019-2020 and dates for conduct of examinations were also suggested as 01.07.2020 to 31.07.2020. It is true that Guidelines mentioned that Guidelines are advisory in nature and each University may chart out its plan of action taking into consideration the issues pertaining to pandemic COVID-19. A reading of the Guidelines indicate that ample latitude was given to the Universities to conduct terminal/intermediate/ semester year examinations in offline and online mode. The Guidelines, however, cannot be read to mean that Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 left it to the wisdom of the Universities to either conduct terminal semester/final year examinations or not to conduct, which is clear from clauses 4 and 5 under the heading “Examinations”. Clause 4 specifically provides that terminal semester /final year examinations for PG/ UG courses/ programmes may be conducted by universities as suggested in the academic calendar keeping in mind the protocols of “social distancing”. The academic calendar, which is part of the Guidelines suggested the date for start of the examinations as 01.07.2020. When we read clause 5, the difference between clause 4 and 5 is clear. With regard to intermediate semester /year students there is express mention that “In case the situation does not appear to be normal in view of COVID-19, grading of the students could be composite of 50% marks on the basis of the pattern of internal evaluation adopted by the universities and the remaining 50% marks can be awarded on the basis of performance in previous semester.” But this option is not mentioned in clause 4 of the Guidelines, which referred to terminal semester/final year examinations. The Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 was issued for a purpose and object with latitude to the Universities to chart their own plan/course but the argument cannot be accepted that Universities were not to follow the Guidelines on the pretext that it uses the expression “advisory”. The Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 were issued looking to the situation that COVID-19 cases are still rising and likely to increase further and as per academic calendar in the Guidelines dated 29.04.2020, the examinations were to complete by 31.07.2020. The UGC requested the Expert Committee to revisit the Guidelines. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 in fact grant further time requiring the completion of examination by 30.09.2020. When we look into the substance of the Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 and Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020, it is clear that Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are in continuation to the earlier Guidelines and not contrary to the earlier Guidelines. We have to look into the substance of the Guidelines and find out the intent and object of the Guidelines. The Guidelines were issued with the object that a uniform academic calendar be followed by all the Universities and final terminal semester/final year examinations be held. With regard to intermediate semester/year examination, the earlier UGC Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 have been continued even in the Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020. We, thus, do not accept the submission of petitioners that Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are contrary to the earlier Guidelines.

66. Now, coming to the first part of the issue that the Guidelines are non-statutory and advisory only, it is the case of both the parties that Guidelines have been issued by the UGC in exercise of power under Section 12. Section 12 of the Act provides that it shall be the general duty of the Commission to take all such steps as it may think fit for the promotion and co-ordination of University education and for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in Universities. The words “all such steps” are of wide import. The steps referred to in Section 12 may include issuance of guidelines, directions, circulars etc. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 has to be treated to have been issued in exercise of statutory powers vested in the Commission under Section 12. Guidelines issued in exercise of statutory powers, thus, cannot be said to be non-statutory. There is one more reason to hold the Guidelines have statutory force. The University Grants Commission, in exercise of power under Section 2 6 sub-section (1) of the Act, 1956 have made the Regulations namely, “the UGC(Minimum Standards of Instruction for the Grant of the Master’s Degree through Formal Education)Regulations, 2003″, on which both learned counsel for the petitioners as well as learned counsel for the UGC have placed reliance. Regulation 6, which deals with “examination and evaluation” contains following regulation as Regulation 6.1:-

“6.1 The university shall adopt the guidelines issued by the UGC and other statutory bodies concerned from time to time in respect of conduct of examinations.”

67. The statutory Regulation, 2003 thus, categorically requires Universities to adopt the Guidelines issued by the UGC, hence, it is the statutory duty of the Universities to adopt the guidelines issued by the UGC. It is the statutory obligation of the Universities to adopt the Guidelines and the Guidelines cannot be ignored by terming it as non-statutory or advisory.

Issue No.3

68. The revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 have been challenged claiming that it violates Article 14 of the Constitution. It is submitted that the UGC guidelines discriminate between the students of Final year and First/Second year. The UGC guidelines have been termed as unreasonable and arbitrary. It is further submitted that impugned guidelines failed the test of Article 14 because they apply throughout India and one fixed date i.e. 30th September, 2020, irrespective of the conditions prevailing in the States/Universities, issuing one deadline results in unequals being treated equally.

69. The submission is that the impugned guidelines discriminate between the students of First year and Final year and carves out one class of students from homogeneous class; The impugned guidelines are in continuation to earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020 and the guidelines dated 29.04.2020 dealt with terminal semester/ final year examination in clause four and for intermediate semester/year students in clause five.

70. The earlier guidelines provided that the examination may be conducted, however, an option was given with regard to intermediate/year students for their promotion on the basis of internal assessment and performance in the previous semesters. Holding of examination for the Final year students was made necessary by the impugned guidelines. The Final year/terminal semesters examinations are important because the learning process is a dynamic interaction where the only way to figure out what students know is to seek evidence of their knowledge and to evaluate it. Performance in examination especially Final year/terminal semester examination are reflection of competence of the students. Terminal semester/Final year examination also provides an opportunity to the students to improve upon their overall score/marks which are very crucial for academic excellence and opportunities of employment. Final year/terminal semester examination of under-Graduate or post-Graduate is an opportunity for student to show his optimum calibre which pave his future career both in academics and employment. We do not find any unreasonableness or arbitrariness in the revised guidelines of University Grants Commission dated 06.07.2020 which require all Universities/ Collages to conduct at least the final year/terminal semester examination.

71. The differentiation made by revised guidelines to hold Final year/ Terminal semester examination has a rational basis and there is an intelligible differentia between the student of Final year/Terminal semester and other students. We thus reject the challenge on the ground that there is any hostile discrimination between the students of Final year/Terminal semester and other students.

72. The further submission that the guidelines failed the test of Article 14 because they apply throughout India and being one fixed date i.e.30.09.2020 irrespective of the conditions prevailing in the individual States/Universities also cannot be accepted. Even the earlier guidelines dated 29.04.2020 provided for an academic calendar which mentioned 01.07.2020 to 15.07.2020 for conduct of Terminal semester/Final year examination and 16.07.2020 to 31.07.2020 for Intermediate semester/year examination. When the academic calendar is set, fixed dates are always given for uniformity. The UGC had rightly fixed a date for completion of the Terminal semester/Final year examination throughout the country to maintain uniformity in the academic calendar.

73. The students who look forward for admission in higher classes or take employment require final degree for their career prospect and to maintain uniformity in dates by which final examinations are over is with the object of students welfare and for their career and it cannot be said that since uniform date has been fixed by which Terminal semester/ Final year examination are to be completed, Article 14 has been violated.

74. Both, the earlier guidelines as well as revised guidelines have taken due notice of the prevailing situation of Covid-19 and it cannot be said that the expert body is unaware of Pandemic spread throughout the Country. The criticism of guidelines that they are unreasonable does not inspire any confidence. Following features in the revised guidelines clearly indicate that expert body took measures in the interest of the students and their academic career:-

(i) The academic calendar provided for in the earlier guidelines contemplated conduct of examination from 01.07.2020 to 31.07.2020. The revised guidelines noticed – “The number of covid cases are still rising and likely to increase further…”. The revised guidelines has granted further time for completion of examination till end of September, 2020, which was astep to facilitate Universities and Colleges to complete their examination which was a reasonable step in wake of the Pandemic.

(ii) The guidelines made the conduct of examination flexible by providing three modes of examination:

(a) Offline (Pen and Paper)

(b) Online

(c) Blended (Online + Offline)

(iii) The revised guidelines also made a provision of examination through special chance in case a student of Terminal semester/Final year is unable to appear in the examination due to any reason.

75. The provision for giving special chance to appear in examination is also in the interest of the students to protect those students who due to any reason are unable to appear in the examination. The above measures taken in the revised guidelines are reasonable and the criticism of the guidelines that they are unreasonable and manifestly arbitrary are without any substance. We thus do not find revised guidelines to be violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.

Issue No.4

76. The claim of the learned counsel for the petitioner is that compelling attendance of the students by holding physical examination in the present situation of the Pandemic is a violation of the ‘Right to Life’ under Article 21. It is contended that lakhs of students, teaching and non-teaching staff will be forced to risk their health and lives of their family members in event they are asked to participate in the Final year/ Terminal examination. The revised guidelines have been issued totally disregarding the graveness of the present Pandemic of which the entire country is in its grip.

77. There can be no doubt that it is the duty of the State to take care of the health of its citizens. The various measures taken by the specified authorities under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, are only with the object to contain the Pandemic and protect the health of citizens of the country. The criticism of the revised guidelines is that it ignores the fact that covid cases are still rising in the different part of the country and the guidelines had completely disregarded the health of the students and expose the students, teachers and non-teaching staff to the risk of contacting virus during the course of examination.

78. It is relevant to note that the revised guidelines were issued taking into consideration the fact that the number of covid cases are still rising and likely to increase further which fact has been categorically mentioned in the beginning of the revised guidelines itself. Further, clause 6 of the revised guidelines specifically provides that every University/Institution has to ensure that it is prepared in all respect to carry out the academic activity following necessary protocols, guidelines, directions, advisories issued by the Central/ State Government from time to time in view of Covid-19. Clause 6 of the guidelines is as follows:-

“6. Notwithstanding the above guidelines regarding conduct of examination and commencement of next academic session, every university/institution has to ensure that it is prepared in all respects to carry out the academic activities following necessary protocols/ guidelines/ directions/ advisories issued by the Central/State Governments and MHRD/UGC from time to time, in view of COVID-19.”

79. The University Grants Commission is conscious of increasing number of covid cases throughout the country and as observed above, the revised guidelines have extended the period for completion of examination from 31.07.2020 to 30.09.2020 which was only due to the reason that due to Pandemic, Universities/ Colleges may not have been able to hold the examination. Further specific provisions in the guidelines that all institutions have to follow necessary protocols, guidelines, directions, advisories issued as measures to contain Covid-19 makes it clear that there is no intent to protect the students, teachers, non-teaching staff from the deadly virus.

80. It is also relevant to note that after issuance of revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 OM dated 06.07.2020, Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), has issued detailed guidelines for conduct of examination which guidelines were duly vetted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare(MoHFW). The guidelines for conduct of examination were circulated by University Grants Commission vide its letter dated 08.07.2020, “Standard Operating Procedure for conduct of examination is relevant” which is quoted as below:-

“Standard Operating Procedure for conduct of Examination

1. The instructions, guidelines and orders issued by the Central and State Governments concerning the opening of educational institutions and safety and health should be abided by the universities and colleges. However, they may develop more stricter provisions and guidelines, if they find it necessary,

2. In case there is a restriction on movements in certain areas, admit/identity cards issued to the students should be treated as a pass for the movement of the students. State Governments should issue instructions to all local authorities to issue movement passes to invigilators and all personnel engaged in the conduct of examination.

3. Entire examination centre floors and walls, doors, gates, should be sprayed with disinfectant.

4. Fresh mask and gloves to be used by exam functionaries after staff verification is done.

5. Sanitizer bottles should be arranged at the entry gate, examination rooms, staff/observer room, etc, and should be replenished regularly.

6. All liquid handwash bottles should be replenished in restrooms and entry gate whenever required.

7. Candidate Seating Area should be thoroughly sanitised (desk and chair) after every session.

8. All the washrooms should be cleaned and disinfected.

9. All door handles, staircase railing, lift buttons, etc, should be disinfected.

10. Wheelchairs, if present at the examination centres, should be disinfected.

11. All the trash bins should be cleaned.

12. Staff verification and self declaration as suggested below must be done as soon as they report at the centre.

a. Exam functionary must submit self declaration about health status.

b. Thermo gun temperature check must be done at staff entrance point.

c. If any Examination functionary fails to meet the self-declaration criteria, or thermo gun check, he/she will be asked to leave the examination centre immediately.

d. Exam functionary needs to wear the mask and gloves at all the time.

13. Cleanliness and hygienic conditions as per safety and health advisories of the concerned government departments are to be maintained at all places.

14. Proper signages, symbols, posters, etc. should be displayed at appropriate place to maintain social distancing.

15. Downloading of ‘Arogya Setu’ App may be advised for every staff and student of the University and College.

16. Adequate arrangements of thermal scanners, sanitisers, facemasks and hand gloves at all entry and exit points including the reception area. Wherever possible, students should be given fresh face masks by the invigilators in the examination room itself.

17. Avoid crowding at entry and exit points.

18. Opening all the gates, of entry and exit, in case HEIs have more than one gate.

19. Senior staff should monitor the entry and exit. There should be proper markings with at least 2 metre distance where students stand while waiting for opening of the college gate. Exit of students should permitted one by one only.

20. Thermal screening of students, wearing of face mask, sanitizing of hands etc. be ensured.

21. The Invigilators, while on duty, should be continuously wearing mask, and proper hand gloves.

22. The students should be asked to sanitize their hands before and after signing the Attendance sheet.

23. Students having symptoms of fever, cough and cold should be either made to sit in a separate room or given a chance to appear on another day.

24. Hand washing stations with facilities of liquid soap should be made available so that every student can wash her/his hand frequently.

25. Keeping in view the physical distancing, institutions should have adequate rooms capacity to meet the proper seating arrangement for examination. Minimum distance between two students should be 2 metres. Sample seating plan is annexed.

26. Adequate arrangements for safe drinking water be made on the campus.

27. Adequate supply of water in toilets and for hand washing be ensured.

28. Dustbins must be cleaned and covered properly.29. Proper sanitization of buses, other transport and official and vehicles of the institution.

30. At the end of the day-

a. Used gloves and masks should be disposed only in a pedal push covered bin at the Examination Centre and outside the examination room/hall.

b. Safely dispose off all used masks and gloves discarded at the examination centres or outside the examination centre in trash bin bags at suitable place and as per standard guidelines issued by health authority.”

81. The Standard operating procedure for conduct of examination as extracted above make it abundantly clear that UGC, MHRD, and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare are fully concerned with the health of all stakeholders i.e. the students as well as exam functionaries.

82. In view of the above, we are not persuaded to accept the submissions of the petitioner that the revised guidelines are violative of Article 21 of the Constitution.

Issue No.5

83. The revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 have been challenged on the ground that it has been issued in the breach of Section 12(1) of the UGC Act, 1956. The submission is that Section 12(1) mandates that the Commission in consultation with the Universities and other bodies concerned shall take all such steps as it may think fit. It is submitted that before issuance of the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020, the UGC was required to consult all the Universities and other bodies concerned. The submission is that the expression ‘other bodies concerned’ used in Section shall include State Disaster Management Authority which has been constituted in each state and before issuance of guidelines dated 06.07.2020, it was obligatory for the UGC to consult the State Disaster Management Authority. Further submission is that the expression ‘other bodies’ may also include health experts and UGC was required to consult health experts before issuing the revised guidelines. The UGC having failed to consult the Universities or other bodies, the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are in breach of Section 12 and are liable to set aside on this ground alone.

84. For appreciating the above challenge raised by the petitioner, we need to look into the statutory scheme as delineated by Section 12 of UGC Act, 1956. Section 12 is part of Chapter III of UGC Act, 1956, which deals with “Powers and functions of the Commission”. Section 12 bears the heading “Functions of the Commission”. Section 12 as relevant is as follows:-

“POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE COMMISSION

Functions of the Commission 12.

It shall be the general duty of the Commission to take, in consultation with the Universities or other bodies concerned, all such steps as it may think fit for the promotion and coordination of University education and for the determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in Universities, and for the purpose of performing its functions under this Act, the Commission may

(a) inquire into the financial needs of Universities;

(b) allocate and disburse, out of the Fund of the Commission, grants to Universities established or incorporated by or under a Central Act for the maintenance and development of such Universities or for any other general or specified purpose;

(c) allocate and disburse, out of the Fund of the Commission, such grants to other Universities as it may deem 1 [necessary or appropriate for the development of such Universities or for the maintenance, or development, or both, of any specified activities of such Universities] or for any other general or specified purpose:

Provided that in making any grant to any such University, the Commission shall give due consideration to the development of the University concerned, its financial needs, the standard attained by it and the national purposes which it may serve,

[(cc) allocate and disburse out of the Fund of the Commission, such grants to institution deemed to be universities in pursuance of a declaration made by the Central Government under section 3, as it may deem necessary, for one or more of the following purposes, namely:-

(i) for maintenance in special cases,

(ii) for development.

(iii) for any other general or specified purpose;]

[(ccc) establish, in accordance with the regulations made under this Act, institutions for providing common facilities, services and programmes for a group of universities or for the universities in general and maintain such institutions or provide for their maintenance by allocating and, disbursing out of the Fund of the Commission such grants as the Commission may deem necessary.]

(d) recommend to any University the measures necessary for the improvement of University education and advise the University upon the action to be taken for the purpose of implementing such recommendation;

(e) advise the Central Government or any State Government on the allocation of any grants to Universities for any general or specified purpose out of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Consolidated Fund of the State, as the case may be;

(f) advise any authority, if such advice is asked for, on the establishment of a new University or on proposals connected with the expansion of the activities of any University;

(g) advise the Central Government or any State Government or University on any question which may be referred to the Commission by the Central Government or the State Government or the University, as the case may be;

(h) collect information on all such matters relating to University education in India and other countries as it thinks fit and make the same available to any University;

(i) require a University to furnish it with such information as may be needed relating to the financial position of the University or the studies in the various branches of learning undertaken in that University, together with all the rules and regulations relating to the standards of teaching and examination in that University respecting each of such branches of learning;

(j) perform such other functions as may be prescribed or as may be deemed necessary by the Commission for advancing the cause of higher education in India oras may be incidental or conducive to the discharge of the above functions.”

85. Section 12 begins with the words “it shall be the general duty of the commission to take”,…”in consultation with Universities or other bodies concerned.” What is the ambit and scope of expression ‘Universities or other bodies concerned’ has fallen for consideration in the present case. The use of expression ‘Universities or other bodies concerned’ is for purpose and object which is clear from subsequent enumerations of functions of the commission in the Section itself. For example, we may take functions of the commission as mentioned in sub-clause (d) which provides that the Commission may recommend to the universities any measures necessary for the improvement of the university education and advise the universities upon the action to be taken for the purpose of implementation of such recommendation. When we look into this sub-clause (d), it is clear that the function enumerated in sub-clause is only with regard to a particular university and for discharge of function by the commission with regard to sub-clause (d), it has to consult only the university concerned.

86. The use of the word ‘Universities or other bodies concerned’ in the opening part of the Section has been with a purpose of referring the universities or other bodies concerned for whom the function has to be performed by. The enumerations given from clause (a) to (j) indicate that apart from universities the function also include advice to the Central Government or any State Government on allocation of any grant to the Universities or advise Central Government or any State Government or any Universities on any question which may be referred to the commission by the Central Government or the State Government. Thus, the expression ‘other bodies’ used in the opening part of the Section is in reference to other bodies apart from universities enumerated in Section 12. The expression ‘Universities or other bodies concerned’ used in the opening part of the Section cannot be stretched to the meaning which is now sought to be given by the learned counsel for the petitioner.

87. The submission that ‘other bodies’ as used in Section 12 should include State Disaster Management Authority or health experts is misconceived. Section 12 never contemplated any such “bodies”. Furthermore, the State Disaster Management Authority came into existence only after enactment of Disaster Management Act, 2005, no such concept was there when the UGC Act, 1956 was enacted. The expression ‘other bodies’ cannot be expanded as contended by the learned counsel for the petitioner. The use of the word ‘concerned’ after ‘Universities or other bodies’ has specific purpose and meaning. The consultation with the Universities or other bodies concerned was in reference to a particular function which was enumerated in clause (a) to (j) and it has specific reference and “Universities” or other bodies” were referred to in the above context. Section 12 cannot be interpreted in a manner that for taking any measure with regard to coordination of university education and for determination and maintenance of standards of teaching examination in the Universities, the UGC should consult each and every University of each and every State and only then, such measures can be taken. Reading the provision in above manner shall make the functioning of UGC unworkable. There are more than nine hundred Universities in the country and to require UGC to consult more than nine hundred universities for taking any measure will make the functioning impossible and impractical.

88. Section 12 cannot be interpreted in a manner that for taking any steps by the UGC, there is a mandatory requirement of consultation of all the States/Universities failing which no measures can be taken by the University Grants Commission. Clause (j) of Section 12 is couched in a very vide manner which empower the commission to perform such other functions as may be prescribed or as may be deemed necessary by the Commission for advancing the cause of higher education in India or as may be incidental or conducive to the discharge of the above function. Any function which may be deemed necessary by the Commission can be performed. For performance of its function by the Commission, the Commission of its own is fully competent to take decisions, issue any directions, guidelines, etc. The Commission may also take assistance of any Committee of experts in discharge of its functions for which there is no prohibition in the statutory scheme. In the common counter affidavit filed by the UGC with regard to the guidelines dated 29.04.2020, the Commission has in paragraph 8 of the common counter affidavit has stated that the guidelines which contained policy decision taken by UGC were made following the report by the Committee under the Chairmanship of Prof. R.C.Kuhad. Following statements have been made in the paragraph 8:-

“8…. It is pertinent to note that these Guidelines, which contain policy decisions taken by the UGC, were made following a report by a committee under the Chairmanship of Prof. R.C.Kuhad, Vice-Chancellor, Central University of Haryana. The said committee consisted of various experts in the field that included Vice-Chancellors of various universities, the director of the Inter University Accelerator Centre, New Delhi, and senior officers of the UGC. Therefore, the Guidelines were published “in consultation with the Universities or other bodies concerned”, as mandated by section 12 of the UGC Act…”

89. The revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 was issued after the report was received from the Committee headed by Prof. R.C. Kuhad as has been specifically pleaded in paragraph 10 of the common counter affidavit in which following statement has been made:-

“10. That, however, in June 2 020, considering the evolving situation of the Covid-19 pandemic, the UGC requested the expert committee headed by Prof. R.C. Kuhad to revisit the ‘UGC Guidelines on Examinations and Academic Calendar for the Universities in View of COVID-19 Pandemic and Subsequent Lockdown’. Accordingly, the expert committee (which also included Vice-Chancellors of technical Universities and a representative of industry) did so, and submitted a report recommending that terminal semester/final year examinations would be conducted by universities/ institutions by the end of September, 2020 in offline(Pen & Paper)/ online/ blended (online + offline) mode. This report of the expert committee was deliberated and approved by the UGC in its emergent meeting held on 06.07.2020…”

90. The statutory scheme as delineated by Section 12 makes it clear that for the purposes of performing its functions under the Act as enumerated in clause (a) to (j) , it is not mandatory duty of the Commission to consult with the Universities or other bodies concerned in all cases e.g. while allocating and disbursing out of the fund of the Commission, grants to the Universities as enumerated in sub-clause (b) and (c). It is not necessary to consult the university to whom the grant is to be allocated and disbursed. The expression “in consultation with the Universities or other bodies concerned” has to be read to mean where consultation with Universities or other bodies concerned is necessary without which the Commission is unable to perform its functions.

91. We may further elaborate the point by referring to certain other functions as enumerated in Section 12. Section 12 sub-clause (h) provides:-

“(h) collect information on all such matters relating to University education in India and other countries as it thinks fit and make the same available to any University;”

92. Whether for collecting information relating to University education in India, UGC has to consult all 900 or more Universities and whether without consultation with the Universities, it cannot perform its functions under Section 12(h), the answer would be obviously that it is not necessary for UGC to consult all the universities while collecting information relating to University Education in India. The expression “Universities or other bodies concerned” has not be read in a rigid manner rather it is flexible as per requirement of the Commission. The residuary clause i.e. Section 12 (j) cloth the Commission to perform such other functions as may be deemed necessary by the Commission. The guidelines dated 29.04.2020 and 06.07.2020 have been issued after consultation of an expert Committee headed by Prof. Kuhad. The guidelines have been issued after a report of an expert committee consisting of academicians and experts. It cannot be said that the Commission had no jurisdiction to issue guidelines without consulting all the Universities in the Country and all the States or Union Territories.

93. The UGC is empowered to perform such other functions as may be deemed necessary by the Commission. If the Commission felt it necessary to issue guidelines after obtaining a report from the expert committee, no exception can be taken to the procedure adopted by the Commission. The guidelines dated 29.04.2020 as well as revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are general in nature and not confined to any particular university or any particular state. Hence, it cannot be said that UGC is obliged to consult all Universities or States before issuance of the guidelines.

94. We thus, are satisfied that guidelines dated 06.07.2020 cannot be said to be violative of Section 12 of UGC Act, 1956.

Issue No.6

95. The submission which has been pressed before us by the learned counsel for the petitioners challenging the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 is that the said guidelines insofar as it directs for holding of the final year/terminal semester examination by 30.09.2020 does not prohibit a State or State Disaster Management Authority in taking appropriate decision in exercise of power under Disaster Management Act, 2005 not to hold examination looking to the situation in a particular State. In this context, reference has been made to the decision taken by the State Disaster Management Authority of Maharashtra dated 18.06.2020 and the Government Resolution dated 19.06.2020 by the State of Maharashtra as well as the proceedings dated 13.07.2020 of the State Disaster Management Authority of the State of Maharashtra. The submission is that exercise of power under Disaster Management Act, 2005 shall override the UGC’s guidelines directing holding of the examination by 30.09.2020 by each University/Colleges. For considering the above submission we need to look into the statutory scheme of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and various orders issued thereunder. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has been enacted to provide for the effective management of disasters and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Section 3 provides for establishment of National Disaster Management Authority with Prime Minister of India as Chairperson. Section 6 provides for powers and functions of National Authority. Section 8 provides for constitution of National Executive Committee. National Plan is to be drawn as per Section 11. Section 14 provides for establishment of State Disaster Management Authority. Section 14 of the Act is as follows:

“Section 14. Establishment of State Disaster Management Authority.-(1) Every State Government shall, as soon as may be after the issue of the notification under sub-section (1) of section 3, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish a State Disaster Management Authority for the State with such name as may be specified in the notification of the State Government.

(2) A State Authority shall consist of the Chairperson and such number of other members, not exceeding nine, as may be prescribed by the State Government and, unless the rules otherwise provide, the State Authority shall consist of the following members, namely:-

(a) the Chief Minister of the State, who shall be Chairperson, ex officio;

(b) other members, not exceeding eight, to be nominated by the Chairperson of the State Authority;

(c) the Chairperson of the State Executive Committee, ex officio.

(3) The Chairperson of the State Authority may designate one of the members nominated under clause (b) of sub-section (2) to be the Vice-Chairperson of the State Authority.

(4) The Chairperson of the State Executive Committee shall be the Chief Executive Officer of the State Authority, ex officio:

Provided that in the case of a Union territory having Legislative Assembly, except the Union territory of Delhi, the Chief Minister shall be the Chairperson of the Authority established under this section and in case of other Union territories, the Lieutenant Governor or the Administrator shall be the Chairperson of that Authority: Provided further that the Lieutenant Governor of the Union territory of Delhi shall be the Chairperson and the Chief Minister thereof shall be the Vice-Chairperson of the State Authority.

(5) The term of office and conditions of service of members of the State Authority shall be such as may be prescribed.”

96. Section 18 deals with powers and functions of State Authority. Section 20 provides for constitution of State Executive Committee and Section 22 enumerates functions of the State Executive Committee. Section 38 empowers the State Government to take measures.

97. After notifying COVID-19 as pandemic the National Disaster Management Authority issued order dated 24.03.2020 directing the Ministries/Departments of Government of India, State/Union Territory Governments and State/Union Territory Authorities to take effective measures so as to prevent the spread of COVID-19 in the country. Guidelines and the measures to be taken by the Ministries, State/Union Territory were issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs. For the purposes of this case we may notice the order dated 30.05.2020 issued by the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs in exercise of powers conferred under Section 6(2)i) of the Act, 2005. The guidelines for phased reopening (Unlock I) was issued on 30.05.2020. Paragraphs 1 and 5 of the guidelines which are relevant are as follows:

“1. Phased re-opening of areas outside the Containment Zones

In areas outside Containment Zones, all activities will be permitted, except the following which will be allowed, with the stipulation of following Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to be prescribed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), in a phased manner.

Phase I

……..

Phase II

Schools, colleges, educational/training/ coaching institutions etc., will be opened after consultations with States and UTs. State Governments/UT administrations may hold consultations at the institution level with parents and other stakeholders. Based on the feedback, a decision on the re-opening of these institutions will be taken in the month of July, 2020.

MoHFW will prepare SOP in this regard, in consultation with the Central Ministries/ Departments concerned and other stakeholders, for ensuring social distancing and to contain the spread of COVID-19.

Phase III

……..

5. States/Uts, based on their assessment of the situation, may prohibit certain activities outside the Containment zones, or impose such restrictions as deemed necessary.

98. The guidelines dated 30.05.2020 were to remain in force till 30.06.2020 during which period some of the States have taken a decision not to hold the examination as directed by the UGC. For the purposes of this case it shall be sufficient to notice the decision taken by the Government of Maharashtra as well as the State Disaster Management Authority of State of Maharashtra. State Disaster Management Authority of Maharashtra in its meeting dated 18.06.2020 took a decision not to conduct the final year/terminal semester examination. The Government Resolution dated 19.06.2020 was issued by the Government of Maharashtra where the Government decided that taking into consideration the situation of COVID-19 in the State of Maharashtra final year examination of professional courses cannot be arranged. With regard to non-professional (traditional) courses Government resolved to declare result by way of adopting suitable formula after obtaining in writing from students that they intend to get the Degree without appearing in examination. On 18.06.2020 when the State Disaster Authority took the decision and the Government of Maharashtra issued Government Resolution the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs dated 30.05.2020 did not expressly permit conduct of examination in Schools/Colleges. In paragraph 5 of the guidelines dated 30.05.2020 issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs, States/Uts, based on their assessment of the situation, were empowered to prohibit certain activities outside the Containment Zones, or impose such restrictions as deemed necessary. When the State Disaster Management Authority and the State Government (Maharashtra) took a decision not to conduct examination, the said decision was well within the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs. Further Disaster Management Authority of the State is empowered under Section 38 to take measures for the purpose of prevention of disaster and mitigation. The decision taken by the State Disaster Management Authority on 18.06.2020 as well as the State Government’s Resolution dated 19.06.2020 insofar they decided not to hold final year/terminal semester examination by 30.09.2020 was well within the jurisdiction of the said Authority. We have noticed that guidelines of UGC dated 06.07.2020 directed all Universities/Colleges to complete their examinations by 30.09.2020. The question is as to whether the State Disaster Management Authority could have taken a decision contrary to the directive of the University Grants Commission to complete the examination by 30.09.3030. Reliance has been placed on Section 72 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 which provision gives overriding effect to the provisions of Act, 2005. Section 72 of the Act, 2005 is quoted below:

“Section 72. Act to have overriding effect.-The provisions of this Act, shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or in any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.”

99. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 empowers the State Disaster Management Authority as well as the State Government to take decision for prevention and mitigation of a disaster and the action taken by the authorities under the Disaster Management Act have been given overriding effect to achieve the purpose and object of the Act. In case of a disaster the priority of all authorities under the Disaster Management Act is to immediately combat the disaster and contain it to save human life. Saving of life of human being is given paramount importance and the Act, 2005 gives primacy, priority to the actions and measures taken under the Act over inconsistency in any other law for the time being in force. Section 72 begins with non obstante clause. This Court in State (NCT of Delhi) vs. Sanjay, 2014(9) SCC 772 in paragraph 63 laid down following:

“63. It is well known that a non-obstante clause is a legislative device which is usually employed to give overriding effect to certain provisions over some contrary provisions that may be found either in the same enactment or some other enactment, that is to say, to avoid the operation and effect of all contrary provisions. “

100. The Kerala High Court had occasion to consider Section 72 of the Disaster Management Act in reference to another Central Act that is Land Acquisition Act. The Division Bench of the Kerala High Court (of which one of us Justice Ashok Bhushan was also a member) laid down following in paragraph 69:

69. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 is enacted with a definite object. Various powers have been given to the different authorities, including the DDMA to achieve the objects of the Act. Various statutory plans are to be prepared for Disaster Management. In event it is to be accepted that with regard to taking any action with regard to a premises which is in occupation/possession/ownership of a private person, the authorities have first to draw proceedings under the Land Acquisition Act and then issue any order under the 2005 Act is to defeat the entire purpose and object of the 2005 Act. The legislature being well aware of the legal consequences have already engrafted Section 72 of the Act which gives overriding effect to the provisions of the 2005 Act, notwithstanding anything consistent therewith contained in any other law. Section 72 of the Act is as follows:

“72. Act to have overriding effect.-The provisions of this Act, shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or in any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.””

101. At this juncture, we may also notice the OM dated 06.07.2020 issued by the Ministry of Human Resource Development as well as the decision dated 06.07.2020 of Ministry of Home Affairs. Learned Solicitor General appearing for the University Grants Commission has submitted that in case of National Disaster the decision taken by the National Disaster Authority as well as the decision of the National Executive Committee hold the field and no contrary decision can be taken by a State Disaster Management Authority or State Government. It is submitted that on 06.07.2020 the Ministry of Home Affairs in a letter to Union Higher Education Secretary, permitted conduct of examination by Universities and Institutions. The decision of the Ministry of Home Affairs is placed on record which is to the following effect:

“Press Information Bureau

Government of India

*****

Ministry of Home Affairs permits conduct of

examinations by Universities and Institutions

New Delhi, July, 6 2020

Ministry of Home Affairs, in a letter to Union Higher Education Secretary, today permitted conduct of examinations by Universities and Institutions. The final Term Examinations are to be compulsorily conducted as per the UGC Guidelines on Examinations and Academic Calendar for the Universities; and as per the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) approved by the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

*****”

102. The Ministry of Human Resource Development issued an OM dated 06.07.2020 which is to the following effect:

“Government of India

Ministry of Human Resource Development

Department of Higher Eduction

Shastri Bhawan, New Delhi,

Date the 6th July, 2020

OFFICE MEMORANDUM

Subject: Instructions for conduct of examination- regarding.

A large number of examinations of the Universities, IIT-JEE(Mains & Advance), NEET etc are scheduled to be held in the coming months. In order to ensure safety of the examinees, as also their academic interest, the following action may be taken.

1. Final Term Examinations should be compulsorily conducted as per UGC Guidelines on Examinations and Academic Calendar for the Universities dated 29.04.2020 which have been again resolved today i.e. 06th July, 2020.

2. All examination may be conducted on 30th September, 2 020.

3. Taking into consideration the academic interest of large number of students, MHA has agreed to the request of MHRD and granted exemption for the opening of educational institutions for the purpose of holding examinations/evaluation work for Final Term Examinations of the Universities/Institutions.

4. MHRD has formulated detailed SOP for conduct of examinations with precautions to be taken in view of COVID-19 situation. This has been vetted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. A copy of the same is enclosed to ensure safety to all.

5. Previous instructions regarding “Work From Home” sent vide letter dated 30.06.2020 will not apply to the officers, faculty and non-Teaching Staff who are involved in Examination/Evaluation/Admission work.

Sd/-

(Vidya Sagar Rai)

Under Secretary to the Govt. of India.”

103. A perusal of the OM dated 06.07.2020 indicates that the Ministry of Home Affairs has agreed to the request of the Ministry of Human Resource Development and granted exemption for the opening of educational institutions for the purpose of holding examinations/ evaluation work for Final Term Examinations of the Universities/Institutions. The said OM as well as letter of the Ministry of Home Affairs cannot be read to mean that it fettered the jurisdiction of the State Authority to take a decision considering the situation in a State with regard to conduct of examinations. The cumulative effect of OM dated 06.07.2020 and letter dated 06.07.2020 shall be that Government of India granted exemption for holding the examinations which shall be treated as exception to the guidelines dated 29.06.2020 issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs where Schools, Colleges, educational and coaching institutions were to remain closed till 31.07.2020. The said OM and letter dated 06.07.2020 permitting holding the examinations shall not fetter the power of the State Disaster Management Authority to take appropriate measures to contain the Disaster in the State. It is relevant to notice that State Disaster Management Authority of the State of Maharashtra held meeting on 13.07.2020 and took the following decision:

“………

After detailed deliberations in the meeting, the following decision was taken:-

1. As per the revised guidelines issued by the University Grants Commission on July 6, 2020, it is not possible to conduct examinations in the State in case of COVID-19. Therefore, the decision taken by the Government on June 19, 2020 regarding the final session/final year examinations of non-professional (traditional) as well as professional courses was upheld.

2. The University Grants Commission should be re-requested as it is not possible to conduct the examination as per the guidelines.”

104. With regard to conduct of examinations, the State authorities are competent to assess the situation in a particular State regarding possibility of holding of examinations. No State shall permit health of its subject to be compromised that is why overriding power has been given to the State Disaster Management Authority and the State Government with regard to any inconsistency with any other law for the time being in force. We have noticed above that there are no orders or directions in the guidelines of the National Disaster Management Authority or National Executive Committee fettering the powers of the State Disaster Management Authority and a State Government to take a decision as to whether examinations by physical mode be permitted in particular State looking to the situation in the State. Coming to the guidelines dated 06.07.2020 of the UGC insofar as it directs completion of final examinations by 30.09.2020 which direction is overridden by the decision of the State Disaster Management Authority and State Government where it resolved not to hold the examinations. We, thus, conclude that direction of the University Grants Commission in its revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 insofar it directs the Universities and colleges to complete the final year/terminal examinations by 30.09.2020 shall be overridden by any contrary decision taken by a State Disaster Management Authority or the State Government exercising power under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Learned counsel appearing for the UGC has, in his submission, submitted that UCC shall be ready to consider any request received from any State to allow the Universities to re-schedule the date of final examinations and in the event any request is made to the UGC the deadline for completion of the examination can be extended by the UGC and the date of final examinations can be rescheduled.

Issue No.7

105. As noted above, the State Disaster Management Authority (State of Maharashtra) in its meeting dated 18.06.2020 as well as the State of Maharashtra in its Resolution dated 19.06.2020 have resolved to promote the students without taking the final examinations. It is useful to refer to the Government Resolution dated 19.06.2020, which is to the following effect:

“Government Resolution:

1. In all non-agricultural universities, deemed universities, self-financed universities and their affiliated colleges for the academic year 2019-20 for organising examinations of final session/final year of graduation/ post-graduation classes the Universities are required to take action as per following point (1) and (2) in A:

(A) Non-Professional (Traditional) Courses:

1. If the students of final session/year have gone through in all earlier sessions intend to get degree certificates without appearing their examination, by way of obtaining in writing from them by way of adopting suitable formula the Universities should declare result.

2. If the students of final session/year have gone through in all earlier sessions intend to appear the examination, by way of obtaining in writing from them opportunity of appearing the examination is to be given to them. After taking into consideration the emergence of Covid-19 epidemic at local level and local situation and after discussing with the concerned District Collector & President of Disaster Eradication Authority the Universities should take suitable decision and accordingly they may declare the time table.

3. In case of the students of final year if there is any backlog, in respect of examinations of their backlog a meeting is to be arranged at Government level with Chancellor and concerned Officers of the University and after discussing the matter in this meeting suitable decision would be taken.

(B) Professional Courses (Engineering, Pharmacy, Hotel Management, Management Science, Architecture, Planning, Computer Science, Law, Physical Education, Teaching Science etc):

Taking into consideration the situation of Covid-19 in the State the examinations of final session/final year of Professional Courses cannot be arranged. For those students like non-professional courses the decision has been taken in the meeting of State Disaster Management Authority that action would be taken as per following point (1), (2) and (3) in above point A. The concerned apex institution of concerned professional courses can make a request for getting approval to the same. In this regard separate communication would be done.

This Government Resolution is being released as per the decision taken in the meeting held on 18th June, 2020 of State Disaster Management Authority formed under Disaster Management Act 2005.”

106. The guidelines dated 06.07.2020 categorically directed all Universities/Colleges to hold the examination of terminal semester/final year, option for not holding the examination was given in the revised guidelines as well as the earlier guidelines only with regard to intermediate/year examination. Before us submissions have been addressed by the learned counsel appearing for the petitioners contending that students can be promoted on the basis of previous year assessment and internal assessment which in no manner shall be lowering down the standard of education and the decision taken by the State Government and the State Disaster Management Authority to grant such promotion is perfectly in accordance with law. Referring to Regulations, 2003 it has been submitted that students can be promoted on the basis of cumulative grade point average. It is submitted that students have completed five semesters and no special importance can be attached to the last semester, hence the Maharashtra Government’s decision to promote on the basis of previous assessment and internal assessment was in accordance with law.

107. We have already held, while considering Issue No.1, that University Grants Commission Act has been enacted in reference to Entry 66 of List I. The States although have legislative competence to legislate on education including Universities but the State Legislation is subject to Entry 66 List I. The revised guidelines issued by UGC are statutory and referable to University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and shall have precedence as compared to any inconsistent decision taken by the State. We also need to consider as to whether in exercise of power under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State or State Disaster Management Authority could have taken any decision with regard to promote the students without undergoing final year/terminal semester examination. The purpose and object of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is management of disasters and for matters connected therewith. The Disaster Management is a continuous and integrated process of planning, organising, coordinating and implementing measures. The Disaster Management has been defined in Section 2(e) to the following effect:

“Section 2(e)- “disaster management” means a continuous and integrated process of planning, organising, coordinating and implementing measures which are necessary or expedient for-

(i) prevention of danger or threat of any disaster;

(ii) mitigation or reduction of risk of any disaster or its severity or consequences;

(iii) capacity-building;

(iv) preparedness to deal with any disaster;

(v) prompt response to any threatening disaster situation or disaster;

(vi) assessing the severity or magnitude of effects of any disaster;

(vii) evacuation, rescue and relief;(viii) rehabilitation and reconstruction;”

108. The word mitigation has also been defined in Section 2(i) as follows:

“Section 2(i)- “mitigation” means measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effects of a disaster or threatening disaster situation;”

109. The exercise of powers by the State Disaster Management Authority or by the State Government which shall have overriding effect under Section 72 are those exercise of jurisdiction which are within the four corners of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. When the State Disaster Management Authority and State Government take a decision that for mitigation or prevention of disaster it is not possible to hold physical examination in the State, the said decision was within the four corners of Disaster Management Act, 2005. However, the decision of the Disaster Management Authority or the State Government that students should be promoted without appearing in the final year/terminal semester examination, is not within the domain of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The decision to promote students and grant Degree by a State if contrary to any Central enactment or guidelines issued thereunder the Central enactment and the guidelines thereunder shall have precedence by virtue of the same being referable to Entry 66 List I. We, thus, conclude that the State Disaster Management Authority and the State Government has no jurisdiction to take a decision that the students of final year/terminal examination should be promoted on the basis of earlier years assessment and internal assessment whereas the UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020 directed specifically to conduct final year/terminal semester examination. The UGC guidelines dated 06.07.2020 in the above respect shall override the decision of the State Government and the State Disaster Management Authority regarding promoting the students, does not fall within the jurisdiction of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and shall have no protection of Section 72 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. We, thus, conclude that the State or the State Disaster Management Authority have no jurisdiction under Disaster Management Act, 2005 to take a decision for promoting the students on the basis of previous performance or internal assessment which decision being contrary to revised guidelines of the University Grants Commission cannot be upheld and has to give way to the guidelines of UGC which is the Authority to issue guidelines for determination and maintenance of standards of education and teaching of the Universities.

110. From the aforesaid discussion, we arrive at the following conclusions:

Conclusions:

(1) The Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 issued by the UGC are not beyond the domain of the UGC and they relate to coordination and determination of standards in institutions of higher education.

(2) The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are in continuation to the earlier Guidelines dated 29.04.2020 and are not contrary to the earlier Guidelines. We have to look into the substance of the Guidelines to find out the intention and object of the Guidelines. The Guidelines were issued with the object that a uniform academic calendar be followed by all the Universities and final /terminal examinations be held.

(3) The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 has to be treated to have been issued in exercise of the statutory powers vested in the Commission under Section 12. As per the Statutory Regulations, 2003, it is the statutory duty of the Universities to adopt the Guidelines issued by the UGC. The Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 cannot be ignored by terming it as non-statutory or advisory.

(4) The differentiation made in the Revised Guidelines to hold final or terminal semester examination and to give option for earlier years/intermediate semester for not holding the examination has a rational basis. The differentiation has nexus with the object to be achieved. We, thus, reject the challenge to the revised Guidelines on the ground that there is any discrimination between the students of final year/terminal semester and those of intermediate and first year.

(5) The revised Guidelines also cannot be termed to violate Article 14 of the Constitution on the ground that one date, i.e., 30.09.2020 has been fixed irrespective of the conditions prevailing in individual States. The date for completion of examination was fixed throughout the country to maintain uniformity in the academic calendar.

(6) The Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 as well as Standard Operating Procedures for conduct of examinations circulated vide letter dated 08.07.2020 of UGC as well as O.M. dated 06.07.2020 issued by MHRD clearly shows deep concern with the health of all stakeholders, i.e., students as well as the exam functionaries. Challenge to the Guidelines on the ground of it being violative of Article 21 is repelled.

(7) The expression “other bodies” used in opening part of the Section 12 of the UGC Act, 1956 is in reference to other bodies apart from Universities as enumerated under Section 12. The submission that other bodies as occurring in Section 12 should include State Disaster Management Authority or health experts is misconceived. Section 12 never contemplated any such expression. The revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 are not in breach of Section 12 of 1956 Act.

(8) The Disaster Management Act, 2005 empowers the State Disaster Management Authority as well as the State Government to take measures for prevention and mitigation of a disaster and the action taken by the authorities under the Disaster Management Act have been given overriding effect to achieve the purpose and object of the Act, 2005. Saving of human life has been given paramount importance under the Act, 2005. Primacy have been given to the actions and measures taken under the Act, 2005 over anything inconsistent in any other law for the time being in force.

(9) The direction of the University Grants Commission in Revised Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 insofar as it directs the Universities and Colleges to complete the final year/terminal year examination by 30.09.2020shall be overridden by any contrary decision taken by the State Disaster Management Authority or the State Government exercising power under the Disaster Management Act, 2 005.

(10) The State Governments or State Disaster Management Authority in exercise of power under Disaster Management Act, 2005 has no jurisdiction to take a decision that the students of final year/terminal students should be promoted on the basis of earlier year assessment and internal assessment, which decision being contrary to UGC Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 has to give way to the UGC Guidelines. The UGC Guidelines dated 06.07.2020 specifically directed to conduct the final year/ terminal semester examination which shall override such contrary decision of the State Government or SDMA.

111. In view of our foregoing discussion and conclusion, this batch of cases is disposed of in the following manner:

(1) The prayer to quash the revised guidelines dated 06.07.2020 issued by the University Grants Commission and OM dated 06.07.2020 issued by the Ministry of Human Resource Development and letter dated 06.07.2020 issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs is refused.

(2) The decision taken by the State Disaster Management Authority/State not to hold final year/terminal semester examination by 30.09.2020 in exercise of power under Disaster Management Act, 2005 shall prevail over deadline fixed by the University Grants Commission i.e. 30.09.2020 in respect to the concerned State.

(3) The decision of the State/State Disaster Management Authority to promote the students in the final year/terminal semester on the basis of previous performance and internal assessment being beyond the jurisdiction of Disaster Management Act, 2 005 has to give way to the guidelines of UGC dated 06.07.2020 directing to hold examination of final year/terminal semester. The State and University cannot promote the students in the final year/terminal semester without holding final year/terminal examination.

(4) If any State/Union Territory in exercise of jurisdiction under Disaster Management Act, 2005 has taken a decision that it is not possible to conduct the final year/terminal semester examination by 30.09.2020, we grant liberty to such State/Union Territory to make an application to the University Grants Commission for extending deadline of 30.09.2020 for that State/Union Territory which shall be considered by UGC and rescheduled date be communicated to such State/Union Territory at the earliest.

112. All writ petitions are disposed of accordingly. The Special Leave Petition No.10042 of 2020 is dismissed.

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Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) – Sections 304B, 498A and 406 – Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 – Sections 3 and 4 – Wife commits suicide due to dowry harassment, cruelty and torture by husband – There is evidence of demand of dowry – Death took place within 7 or 8 months and there is oral evidence of the parents of cruelty and torture immediately preceding the death – Bail bonds shall stand cancelled

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

DIVISION BENCH

PREET PAL SINGH — Appellant

Vs.

THE STATE OF UTTAR PRADESH AND ANOTHER — Respondent

( Before : Arun Mishra and Indira Banerjee, JJ. )

Criminal Appeal No. 520 of 2020 [Arising out of SLP (Crl) No. 2102 of 2019]

Decided on : 14-08-2020

Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) – Sections 304B, 498A and 406 – Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 – Sections 3 and 4 – Wife commits suicide due to dowry harassment, cruelty and torture by husband – Appeal by father of victim against the order of High Court that granted the bail to the husband – It is nobody’s case that the death of the victim was accidental or natural – There is evidence of demand of dowry, which the Trial Court has considered – Death took place within 7 or 8 months and there is oral evidence of the parents of cruelty and torture immediately preceding the death – There is also evidence of payment of Rs.2,50,000/- to the husband-Accused by the victim’s brother – Husband has not been able to demonstrate any apparent and/or obvious illegality or error in the judgment of the Sessions Court, to call for suspension of execution of the sentence – Appellant had spent money beyond his financial capacity, at the wedding of the victim and had even gifted an I-10 car – Hapless parents were hoping against hope that there would be an amicable settlement – Even as late as on 17.6.2010 the brother of the victim paid Rs.2,50,000/- to the husband – Failure to lodge an FIR complaining of dowry and harassment before the death of the victim inconsequential – Parents and other family members of the victim obviously would not want to precipitate a complete break down of the marriage by lodging an FIR against the Respondent No.2 and his parents, while the victim was alive – Impugned order of the High Court is set aside and the husband is directed to surrender for being taken into custody – Bail bonds shall stand cancelled – Appeal allowed.

Counsel for Appearing Parties

Mr. Vishwajit Singh, Advocate, Ms. Ridhima Singh, Advocate, Ms. Veera Kaul Singh, Advocate, Mr. Pankaj Singh, Advocate, Mr. Vignesh Singh, Advocate for the Appellant; Mr. V.K.Shukla, Senior Advocate, Mr. Vipin Nair, Advocate, Mr. P.B. Suresh, Advocate, Mr. Karthik Jayshankar, Advocate, Mr. Adarsh Upadhyay, Advocate, Mr. Abhitosh Pratap Singh, Advocate for the Respondent.

Cases Referred

  • Ajay Kumar Sharma vs. State of U.P. and Ors., (2005) 7 SCC 507
  • Babu Singh and Ors. vs. State of U.P., (1978) 1 SCC 579
  • Chaman Lal vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2004) 7 SCC 525
  • Dataram Singh vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2018) 3 SCC 22
  • Kalyan Chadra Sarkar vs. Rajesh Ranjan and Anr., (2004) 7 SCC 528
  • Kashmira Singh vs. State of Punjab, (1977) 4 SCC 291
  • Lokesh Singh vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2008) 16 SCC 753
  • Mauji Ram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Anr., (2019) 8 SCC 17
  • State of Punjab vs. Iqbal Singh & Ors., (1991) 3 SCC 1
  • Vinod Singh Negi vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Anr., (2019) 8 SCC 13

JUDGMENT

Indira Banerjee, J. – Leave granted.

2. This appeal, filed by the father of the deceased victim, is against the order dated 21.01.2019 passed by the Allahabad High Court, Lucknow Bench in Criminal Misc. Application No. 129789 of 2018, in Criminal Appeal No. 1594 of 2018, whereby the High Court granted bail to the Respondent No.2, Sandeep Singh Hora, husband of the deceased victim, convicted by a judgment dated 23.7.2018 of the Additional District and Sessions Judge/Special Judge (EC Act), Lucknow, hereinafter referred to as the “Sessions Court” in Sessions Trial No.1385 of 2010, for offences under Sections 304B, 498A and 406 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Sections 3 and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 by staying execution of the sentences of imprisonment.

3. By an order dated 23.7.2018 in Sessions Trial No. 1385 of 2010 the Sessions Court sentenced the Respondent No.2 to Simple Imprisonment of 3 years and fine of Rs.10,000/- under Section 498A of the IPC and in default of payment of fine to further Simple Imprisonment of 3 months; Life Imprisonment for offence under Section 304B of the IPC; Simple Imprisonment for 3 years and fine of Rs. 5,000/- for offence under Section 406 of the IPC and in default of payment of fine, further simple imprisonment of 2 months; Simple Imprisonment for 5 years and fine of Rs. 15,000/- under Section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act and in default of payment of fine, further Simple Imprisonment of 3 months and Simple Imprisonment of one year and fine of Rs. 5,000/- under Section 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act and, in default of payment of fine, further Simple Imprisonment of 3 months. All the sentences were to run concurrently.

4. Being aggrieved by the conviction and sentence, the Respondent No.2 filed an appeal in the High Court which was numbered Criminal Appeal No.9514 of 2018. After filing the appeal, the Respondent No.2 filed Criminal Misc. Application No.129789 of 2018 inter alia praying that he be enlarged on bail, during the pendency of the aforesaid appeal. The said application has been allowed by the order dated 21.1.2019 under appeal.

5. The High Court recorded the submission made on behalf of the Respondent No.2 that (i) No FIR in relation to demand for dowry or harassment had been filed before the death of the victim; (ii) the Respondent No.2 had taken Rs. 2,50,000/- as loan from the brother of the victim and not as dowry, which was established because the brother of the victim had not been produced as a witness; and (iii) that the deceased had committed suicide which was evident from the post mortem report. The cause of death as shown in the post mortem report was “asphyxia as a result of ante mortem hanging”.

6. The High Court briefly recorded the submission on behalf of the State and on behalf of the Appellant and then the submission on behalf of the Respondent No.2, in rebuttal, that the Respondent No.2 had been framed.

7. After recording the submissions of the respective parties, the High Court passed a short, cryptic, non speaking order, under appeal before this Court, which is set out herein below for convenience:-

“After hearing learned counsel for the parties and going through the record, we find force in the arguments raised by learned counsel for the accused-appellant. Keeping in view the facts and circumstances of the case, without commenting anything on merits of the case, we are of the considered opinion that accused-appellant is entitled to be released on bail.

Let accused-appellant, namely Sandeep Singh Hora convicted in aforesaid Sessions Trial No. 1385 of 2010 be enlarged on bail during pendency of appeal subject to his furnishing a personal bond and two sureties each in the like amount to the satisfaction of court concerned.

It is clarified that no stay order has been passed in respect of fine imposed on the accused appellant and the same shall be deposited within four weeks from today and in default, the accused-appellant shall be deprived from the benefit of the bail order passed today.

The bail bonds after being accepted, shall be transmitted to this Court for being kept on record of this appeal.”

8. It is not in dispute that the victim died in circumstances which were not natural, on the night of 24/25.8.2010, within about 81/2 months of her marriage with the Respondent No.2 on 12.12.2009.

9. On 25.8.2010, at about 3.05 a.m., a First Information Report No. 352/2010 was registered on the complaint of the Appellant, pursuant to which, a criminal case being Crime No.480 of 2010 was initiated against Respondent No.2, his parents and his sister Sonia @ Disha Chhugani under Sections 498A, 304B, 406 and 411 of the IPC and Sections 3 and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act.

10. After investigation into the case, the Investigating Officer submitted a charge sheet against the Respondent No.2, his father Balvir Singh, his mother Manjeet Kaur and his sister Sonia @ Disha Chhugani.

11. The case was committed to the Sessions Court, after which charges were framed against the accused under Sections 498A, 304B and 406 of IPC and Sections 3 and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, to which the accused pleaded not guilty and claimed trial. The accused were absolved of the charge under Section 411 of the IPC.

12. In Sessions Trial No.1385 of 2010, the Prosecution examined eight witnesses, including the Appellant, being the complainant in the FIR, his wife, being the mother of the victim and his sister Rajendra Pal Kaur, being the paternal aunt of the victim. The defence also examined five witnesses. The Respondent No.2 and the other accused were examined under Section 313 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC).

13. The evidence adduced before the Sessions Court, has meticulously been recorded in the judgment and order dated 23.7.2018, under appeal before the High Court. The family members of the victim, who deposed before the Sessions Court, have given oral evidence that the Appellant had spent money beyond his financial capacity, for the wedding of his daughter, that is, the victim. However, soon after the marriage of the victim to the Respondent No.2 on 12.12.2009, the victim’s in-laws as well as the Respondent No.2, her husband, harassed her mentally and physically for more dowry.

14. From the oral evidence of the victim’s parents, and other family members, it transpires that the victim used to make phone calls to her mother, maternal grandmother and her aunt, complaining of harassment meted out to her by the members of her matrimonial family. There is oral evidence that the Appellant’s wife used to console her by saying that things would settle down in due course.

15. From the oral evidence it also transpires that the in-laws of the victim used to pressurize the victim to bring cash from her parents. On 17.6.2010, the Respondent No.2 along with his father Balvir Singh came to Sitapur and took cash of Rs. 2,50,000/- from the victim’s brother, Pritam Singh. From the oral evidence of the Appellant, it transpires that on the evening of 24.8.2010, the victim rang up the Appellant twice, complaining of atrocities. She was frightened and expressed fear for her life. On the same night at 12.15 a.m. the Appellant was informed that his daughter had died.

16. The 2nd Prosecution Witness, being the mother of the victim, stated that the family had spent approximately Rs.21 lacs for the marriage of the victim. They had gifted I-10 car, which they had purchased, after obtaining loan against insurance policy. However, after marriage, the in-laws of the victim started harassing the victim, demanding cash of Rs.15 to 20 lacs, alleged to have been promised by her parents and also demanding a Pajero car in place of the I-10 car.

17. The post mortem report reveals the following ante-mortem injuries:-

“Oblique ligature mark 30 cm x 1.5 cm on front and around the neck just above thyroid cartilage; both lungs and membranes congested; right heart chamber full and left empty; there was some semi-digested food material available in stomach; liver, spleen, both kidneys congested; uterus empty and normal; the death had possibly taken place half day before post-mortem.

As per the opinion of the witness, the deceased had died due to asphyxia as a result of ante mortem hanging.”

18. The Respondent No. 2 and his parents were examined under Section 313 of the Cr.PC. They denied practically everything, except the fact that the Respondent No.2 had married the victim on 12.12.2009. They emphasized on the fact that the victim had committed suicide, and contended that the entire investigation had been conducted under the supervision and instructions of a motivated IPS officer, who was a friend of the Appellant.

19. The Respondent No.2 and/or his parents have, in their examination under Section 313 of the CrPC, suggested that the deceased victim had wanted to marry some other boy, but had been compelled by her parents to marry the Respondent No.2 and that she frequently used to talk with and exchange messages with that boy. There is also a suggestion that the victim had committed suicide because of mental illness. Significantly, on the one hand it is insinuated that her involvement with another boy led to the suicide and on the other hand it is suggested that she committed suicide due to mental illness. The suggestions are somewhat contradictory and in any case the suggestion of mental illness is unsupported by any evidence whatsoever.

20. Through three of the witnesses examined by the defence, namely, one Shri K.K. Pandey, Sub-Divisional Engineer, Mobile Services (Security) who deposed as the 1st Defence Witness, Shri Madhu Balusu, Nodal Officer, Reliance Communications, Gomti Nagar, Lucknow who deposed as 2nd Defence Witness, and Shri Prashant Mishra who deposed as 3rd Defence Witness, the defence made an attempt to establish the victim’s involvement with the said Prashant Mishra. The evidence of the aforesaid three witnesses evinces calls from the victim’s phone to the phone in the name of Prashant Mishra, and from the said phone to the phone of the victim and also exchange of some messages between the two phones. However, the said Prashant Mishra, who deposed as Defence witness said, that the phone in his name was always kept at home and used by his parents and sister. The victim was a class friend of his sister, Prachi. He did not know the mobile number of the victim. The victim used to talk to his sister Prachi. This witness deposed that he knew that the victim had married the Respondent No.2. He said that his sister Prachi and his mother had attended the wedding. This witness categorically asserted that phone calls to and from the victim from this phone number were not made in his presence, nor were the messages exchanged in his presence.

21. The 4th Defence Witness, Smt. Lajwanti Chugani (mother-in-law of Sonia @ Disha Chhugani) and the 5th Defence Witness Shri Bhagwan Das Chugani (father-in-law of Sonia alias Disha Chhugani) deposed that their daughter in law Sonia did not have good relations with her parents as she had left her first husband and remarried their son against the wishes of her parents.

22. The Sessions Court considered the evidence adduced on behalf of the Prosecution, including the oral evidence of the family members of the victim, the evidence of the defence witnesses and the defence of the Respondent No.2, his parents and his sister under Section 313 of the CrPC and thereafter convicted the Respondent No.2 as also his parents Balvir Singh and Manjeet Kaur under Sections 498A, 304B and 406 of the IPC and under Sections 3 and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act. The Respondent No.2’s sister Sonia @ Disha Chugani was acquitted of all the charges against her.

23. The judgment and order of the Sessions Court, under appeal in the High Court is based on evidence. The oral evidence adduced before the Sessions Court, which has meticulously been recorded in the judgment and order dated 23.7.2008, under appeal before the High Court, reveals that there is evidence of torture and harassment of the victim, by the Respondent No. 2 and his parents, for more dowry, soon after marriage, which continued till her death. The victims husband (Respondent No. 2) and her in laws pressurized the victim to bring cash from her parents and also pressurized her for a Pajero car in place of the I-10 car gifted by her parents at the time of marriage. The Respondent No. 2 came to Sitapur along with his father, Balvir Singh on 17.6.2010 and took cash of Rs. 2,50,000/- from the victim’s brother, Pritam Singh. Even as late as on the evening of 24.8.2010, the Respondent No.2 went to the residence of the victim’s aunt and threatened to put an end to the marriage. On 24.8.2010, the victim had made frantic calls complaining of torture, and expressing fear for her life. From the oral evidence, it may be reasonably inferred that she was traumatized. The same night, she died in unnatural circumstances.

24. It is not for this Court to go into the merits of the appeal pending before the High Court. Suffice it to mention that prima facie the Sessions Court has proceeded on the basis of evidence and the Respondent No.2 has not been able to make out a case of any patent infirmity and/or illegality in the judgment and order of the Sessions Court.

25. The Short question that arises for consideration in this appeal is, whether the High Court was justified in directing release of the Respondent No.2 on bail, during the pendency of his appeal before the High Court.

26. Section 389 provides that, pending any appeal by a convicted person, the Appellate Court may, for reasons to be recorded by it in writing, order that the execution of the sentence or order appealed against, be suspended and, also, if he is in confinement, that he be released on bail. Of course, in view of the mandate of Section 389(3) of the CrPC, the principles are different in the case of sentence not exceeding three years and/or in the case of bailable offences. In this case, of course, none of the offences for which the Respondent No. 2 has been convicted are bailable. Moreover the Respondent No.2 has, inter alia, been given life imprisonment for offence under Section 304B of the IPC and imprisonment for five years for offence under Section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act.

27. As the discretion under Section 389(1) is to be exercised judicially, the Appellate Court is obliged to consider whether any cogent ground has been disclosed, giving rise to substantial doubts about the validity of the conviction and whether there is likelihood of unreasonable delay in disposal of the appeal, as held by this Court in Kashmira Singh vs. State of Punjab, (1977) 4 SCC 291 and Babu Singh and Ors. vs. State of U.P., (1978) 1 SCC 579

28. Section 304B was incorporated in the Indian Penal Code by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986 (Act 43 of 1986). The object of the amendment was to curb dowry death. Section 304B does not categorize death, it covers every kind of death that occurs otherwise than in normal circumstances. Where the other ingredients of Section 304B of the Code are satisfied, the deeming fiction of Section 304B would be attracted and the husband or the relatives shall be deemed to have caused the death of the bride.

29. The essential ingredients for attraction of Section 304B are:

(i) the death of woman must have been caused in unnatural circumstances.

(ii) the death should have occurred within 7 years of marriage

(iii) Soon before her death the woman must have been subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives and such cruelty or harassment must be for or in connection with the demand for dowry, and such cruelty or harassment is shown to have been meted out to the woman soon before her death.

30. As observed by this Court in State of Punjab vs. Iqbal Singh & Ors., (1991) 3 SCC 1 the legislative intent of incorporating Section 304B was to curb the menace of dowry death with a firm hand. In dealing with cases under Section 304B, this legislative intent has to be kept in mind. Once there is material to show that the victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment before death, there is a presumption of dowry death and the onus is on the accused in-laws to show otherwise. At the cost of repetition, it is reiterated that the death in this case took place within 81/2 months of marriage. There is apparently evidence of harassment of the victim for dowry even on the day of her death, and there is also evidence of payment of a sum of Rs. 2,50,000/- to the Respondent-Accused by the victim’s brother, two months before her death.

31. In Kalyan Chadra Sarkar vs. Rajesh Ranjan and Anr., (2004) 7 SCC 528 this Court held:-

“11. The law in regard to grant or refusal of bail is very well settled. The Court granting bail should exercise its discretion in a judicious manner and not as a matter of course. Though at the stage of granting bail a detailed examination of evidence and elaborate documentation of the merits of the case need not be undertaken, there is a need to indicate in such orders reasons for prima facie concluding why bail was being granted particularly where the accused is charged of having committed a serious offence. Any order devoid of such reasons would suffer from non-application of mind.”

32. Even though detailed examination of the merits of the case may not be required by courts while considering an application for bail but, at the same time, exercise of jurisdiction has to be based on well settled principles and in a judicious manner and not as a matter of course as held by this Court in Chaman Lal vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2004) 7 SCC 525

33. In Mauji Ram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Anr., (2019) 8 SCC 17 this Court referred to Ajay Kumar Sharma vs. State of U.P. and Ors., (2005) 7 SCC 507Lokesh Singh vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2008) 16 SCC 753 and Dataram Singh vs. State of U.P. and Anr., (2018) 3 SCC 22 and stated categorically that this Court had time and again emphasised the need for assigning reasons while granting bail.

34. In Lokesh Singh v. State of U.P. and Anr. (supra), this Court referred to Kalyan Chadra Sarkar v. Rajesh Ranjan (supra) and set aside the impugned order of the High Court granting bail.

35. In Ajay Kumar Sharma (supra), a three-Judge Bench of this Court relied on Chaman Lal vs. State of U.P. (supra) and set aside order of bail granted by the High Court holding, that it was well settled that even though detailed examination of the merits of the case may not be required by the courts while considering an application for bail, at the same time exercise of discretion has to be based on well settled principles and in a judicious manner and not as a matter of course.

36. There is a difference between grant of bail under Section 439 of the CrPC in case of pre-trial arrest and suspension of sentence under Section 389 of the CrPC and grant of bail, post conviction. In the earlier case there may be presumption of innocence, which is a fundamental postulate of criminal jurisprudence, and the courts may be liberal, depending on the facts and circumstances of the case, on the principle that bail is the rule and jail is an exception, as held by this Court in Dataram Singh vs. State of U.P. and Anr. (supra). However, in case of post conviction bail, by suspension of operation of the sentence, there is a finding of guilt and the question of presumption of innocence does not arise. Nor is the principle of bail being the rule and jail an exception attracted, once there is conviction upon trial. Rather, the Court considering an application for suspension of sentence and grant of bail, is to consider the prima facie merits of the appeal, coupled with other factors. There should be strong compelling reasons for grant of bail, notwithstanding an order of conviction, by suspension of sentence, and this strong and compelling reason must be recorded in the order granting bail, as mandated in Section 389(1) of the Cr.P.C.

37. In Vinod Singh Negi vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Anr., (2019) 8 SCC 13 this Court set aside the impugned order of suspension of sentence and grant of appeal as the order was devoid of reasons.

38. It is nobody’s case that the death of the victim was accidental or natural. There is evidence of demand of dowry, which the Trial Court has considered. The death took place within 7 or 8 months and there is oral evidence of the parents of cruelty and torture immediately preceding the death. There is also evidence of payment of Rs. 2,50,000/- to the Respondent-Accused by the victim’s brother. The Respondent No.2 has not been able to demonstrate any apparent and/or obvious illegality or error in the judgment of the Sessions Court, to call for suspension of execution of the sentence.

39. In considering an application for suspension of sentence, the Appellate Court is only to examine if there is such patent infirmity in the order of conviction that renders the order of conviction prima facie erroneous. Where there is evidence that has been considered by the Trial Court, it is not open to a Court considering application under Section 389 to re-assess and/or re-analyze the same evidence and take a different view, to suspend the execution of the sentence and release the convict on bail.

40. Even though the term ‘dowry’ is not defined in the Indian Penal Code, it is defined in the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 as any valuable security given or agreed to be given either directly or indirectly by one party to the marriage to the other party to the marriage, or by any person at or before or any time after the marriage, in connection with the marriage of the parties.

41. It is difficult to appreciate how the High Court could casually have suspended the execution of the sentence and granted bail to the Respondent No.2 without recording any reasons, with the casual observation of force in the argument made on behalf of the Appellant before the High Court, that is, the Respondent No.2 herein. In effect, at the stage of an application under Section 389 of the CrPC, the High Court found merit in the submission that the brother of the victim not having been examined, the contention of the Respondent No.2, being the Appellant before the High Court, that the amount of Rs. 2,50,000/-was taken as a loan was not refuted, ignoring the evidence relied upon by the Sessions Court, including the oral evidence of the victim’s parents.

42. From the evidence of the Prosecution witnesses, it transpires that the Appellant had spent money beyond his financial capacity, at the wedding of the victim and had even gifted an I-10 car. The hapless parents were hoping against hope that there would be an amicable settlement. Even as late as on 17.6.2010 the brother of the victim paid Rs. 2,50,000/- to the Respondent No.2. The failure to lodge an FIR complaining of dowry and harassment before the death of the victim, is in our considered view, inconsequential. The parents and other family members of the victim obviously would not want to precipitate a complete break down of the marriage by lodging an FIR against the Respondent No.2 and his parents, while the victim was alive.

43. For the reasons discussed above, the appeal is allowed. The impugned order of the High Court is set aside and the Respondent No.2 is directed to surrender for being taken into custody. The bail bonds shall stand cancelled.

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Will can be prooved through other evidences even if attesting witness fails to proove it.

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

DIVISION BENCH

V. KALYANASWAMY(D) BY LRS. AND ANOTHER — Appellant

Vs.

L. BAKTHAVATSALAM (D) BY LRS . AND OTHERS — Respondent

( Before : Sanjay Kishan Kaul and K.M Joseph, JJ. )

Civil Appeal Nos.1021-1026 of 2013; Civil Appeal With Nos.1027-1032 of 2013; Civil Appeal Nos. 1033-1038 of 2013; Civil Appeal Nos. 1039-1044 of 2013 and Civil Appeal Nos. 1045-1050 of 2013

Decided on : 17-07-2020

A. Evidence Act, 1872 – Sections 68 and 69 – Will – Both the attesting witnesses to the Will were dead – Requirement under Section 68 of the Evidence Act was not fulfilled – Deposition of one of the attesting witnesses to the Will did not establish due execution of the Will, in that, it did not establish the attestation of the Will by the other alleged attesting witness – A case covered under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, the requirement pertinent to Section 68 of the Evidence Act that the attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved by examining at least one attesting witness, is dispensed with. It may be that the proof given by the attesting witness, within the meaning of Section 69 of the Evidence Act, may contain evidence relating to the attestation by the other attesting witness but that is not the same thing as stating it to be the legal requirement under the Section to be that attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved in a case covered by Section 69 of the Evidence Act – A case covered under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, what is to be proved as far as the attesting witness is concerned, is, that the attestation of one of the attesting witness is in his handwriting. The language of the Section is clear and unambiguous. Section 68 of the Evidence Act, as interpreted by this Court, contemplates attestation of both attesting witnesses to be proved. But that is not the requirement in Section 69 of the Evidence Act – Appeal dismissed. (Paras 19 and 71)

B. Evidence Act, 1872 – Section 71 – Succession Act, 1925 – Section 63 – Will – Proof when attesting witness denies the execution – Section 69 of the Evidence Act manifests a departure from the requirement embodied in Section 68 of the Evidence Act – In the case of a Will, which is required to be executed in the mode provided in Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, when there is an attesting witness available, the Will is to be proved by examining him. He must not only prove that the attestation was done by him but he must also prove the attestation by the other attesting witness. This is, no doubt, subject to the situation which is contemplated in Section 71 of the Evidence Act which allows other evidence to be adduced in proof of the Will among other documents where the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the Will or the other document. In other words, the fate of the transferee or a legatee under a document, which is required by law to be attested, is not placed at the mercy of the attesting witness and the law enables proof to be effected of the document despite denial of the execution of the document by the attesting witness. (Para 70)

Counsel for Appearing Parties

Ms. V. Mohana, Sr. Advocate, Mr. B. Ragunath, Advocate, Mr. Vijay Kumar, Advocate, Mr. S. Nandakumar, Advocate, Mr. V. N. Raghupathy, Advocate, Ms. Deepika Nandakumar, Advocate, Mr. M.S. Saran Kunar, Advocate, Mr. Anil Kaushik, Advocate, Mr. Shiv Prakash Pandey, Advocate, Mr. R. N. Keswani, Advocate, Mr. M.P. Parthiban, Advocate, for the Appellant; Mr. V. Balachandran, Advocate, Mr. K. K. Mani, Advocate, Mrs. Revathy Raghavan, Advocate, Mr. S.Guru Krishna Kumar, Sr. Advocate, Mr. K.Parameshwar, Advocate, Mr. M.V.Mukunda, Advocate, Mr. Tushar Bakshi, Advocate, Mr. Ankolekar Gurudatta, Advocate, Mr. V. Raghavachari, Advocate, Mrs. Prabha Swami, Advocate, Mr. Nikhil Swami, Advocate, Ms. Divya Swami, Advocate, Mr. V. N. Raghupathy, Advocate and Mr. R. N. Keswani, Advocate, for the Respondent.

Cases Referred

  • Addagada Raghavamma and Ors. vs. Addagada Chenchamma and Ors., AIR 1964 SC 136
  • Adiyalath Katheesumma and Ors. vs. Adiyalath Beechu and Ors.; AIR 1951 MAD 561
  • Aiyyagari Venkataramayya and another vs. AiyyagariRamayya, (1902) ILR 25 Madras 690
  • Appan Patra Chariar vs. V.S. Srinivasa Charriar and Others; 40 Mad 1122: AIR 1918 Mad 531
  • Appovier vs. Rama Subba Aiyan and others, (1866) 11 Moore.I.A.75
  • Babu Ramasray Prasad Choudhary vs. Radhika Devi [(1935) 43 LW 172 (PC)]
  • Babu Singh and others vs. Ram Sahai alias Ram Singh, (2008) 14 SCC 754
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JUDGMENT

K.M. Joseph, J. – One R. Venkitusamy Naidu had two sons and five daughters. Lakshmiah Naidu and Rangaswami Naidu were the sons of R. Venkitusamy Naidu. Rangaswami Naidu was married to one R. Krishnammal. They had no issues. Lakshmiah Naidu had four sons, viz., Bakthavatsalam,Venkatapathy, Jagannathan and Ramaswamy. Two civil suits have generated these appeals by special leave before us. O.S. No. 649 of 1985 has been filed by those who claimed under Lakshmiah Naidu whereas the plaintiff in O.S. No. 89 of 1983 is one of legatees under a Will allegedly executed by Rangaswami Naidu. The plaint schedule properties in both the civil suits are the same.

2. The first suit, viz., O.S. No. 649 of 1985 (as the said suit was initially filed as O.S. No. 2063 of 1982 and it is re-numbered as O.S. No. 649 of 1985) was filed to declare the title of the plaintiffs to the suit property and for injunction against the defendants in the suit properties. The relief sought inter alia in O.S. No. 89 of 1983 are as follows:-

“(a) declaring the title of the plaintiff to an l/3rd share of the properties described in Schedule I, hereunder or l/4th share in the properties, described in Schedule II hereunder:

(b) directing the partition of the properties described in schedule I into three equal shares with reference to good and bad soil and granting separate possession to the plaintiff one such share or in the alternative directing a partition of the properties described in Schedule II into four equal shares with reference to good and bad soil and granting separate possession to the plaintiff one such share;

(c) appointing a commissioner to effect the division;

(d) directing defendants 4 to 11 to pay the plaintiff Rs .15,000.00 as past mesne profits.

(e) directing an enquiry into future mesne profits from the date of suit till delivery of possession and pass a decree for such amount as may be determined on enquiry;

xxx xxx xxx.”

A CHEQUERED HISTORY; FIRST STAGE

3. This litigation has a chequered history. It all began way back in the year 1955. Proceedings under Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (for short “CrPC”) came to be initiated before the First Class Magistrate, Coimbatore as M.C. No. 1 of 1955 and M.C. No. 8 of 1955. Krishnammal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu was A’ Party. This was on the basis of the report of the Sub- Inspector of Police dated 04.07.1955 to the effect that there was a dispute regarding the possession of Survey No. 613/04 and 614/03 of Uppilipalayam Village. ‘A’ party no. 1 was R. Krishnammal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu. ‘A’ party no. 2 was the nephew of ‘A’ party no. 1 and the executor of the Will. ‘B’ party no. 1 was the elder brother of Rangaswami Naidu, viz., Lakshmiah Naidu. ‘B’ party nos. 2 to 4 were the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu.

The case set up by ‘A’ party was in brief as follows:

There was a partition in the year 1932 between B party no. 1 and the late Rangaswami Naidu. Rangaswami Naidu also purchased lands in his own name. He took several lands on lease. A’ party, in short, claimed that they were in possession of the land in question. It was, further, the case of ‘A’ party that Rangaswami Naidu who was under treatment of cancer but returned to Coimbatore after the first course of treatment was over and was staying in the Bungalow at Race Course had executed a will on 10.05.1955. He appointed ‘A’ party no. 2, viz., the nephew of his wife as executor. He had declared his divided status by way of a notice in newspaper called ‘Nava India’ dated 10.5.1955. Lakshmiah Naidu, the first among the B party and the brother of Rangaswami Naidu on seeing the notice responded to the same by communication dated 11.05.1955 to the effect that they were undivided and if Rangaswami wanted to get divided he had to intimate the other co-parceners. It is the further case of A party that Rangaswami Naidu had replied on 16.05.1955 pointing out that the stand of Lakshmiah Naidu in his response dated 11.5.1955 was incorrect. It is also alleged that it was acknowledged on 17.05.1955 by B party no. 1. After 10.05.1955 the health of Rangaswami Naidu took a turn for the worse. He left for Bombay on 20.05.1955. He was still conscious of his duties and was corresponding with others. Rangaswami Naidu passed away in the early hours on 01.06.1955. B party has, had on the other hand contended that Rangaswami Naidu and B party were members of the joint Hindu Family. B party no. 1, viz., Lakshmiah Naidu was sufficiently aged and could not attend to all items of work. Rangaswami Naidu and one of Lakshmiah Naidu’ s sons were asked to look after the cultivation of fields. The case of partition in the year 1932 was denied. Rangaswami Naidu became unwell and unable to take food from January 1955 and was fed by tube. In short, the contention of B party was that Rangaswami Naidu continued to be an undivided member.

4. The Magistrate did not undertake any discussion about the will finding it unnecessary. Finding B party in possession and that they were entitled to be in possession until evicted in due course of law by order dated 16.4.1956, the Magistrate held in favour of the B party. B party, it is noted, were Lakshmiah Naidu and his sons. Lakshmiah Naidu passed away on 10.04.1958. The revision petition against the same was dismissed.

THE SECOND STAGE OF LITIGTION

5. The second stage of the litigation is ushered in by the filing of O.S.No.71 of 1958. The plaintiff was R. Krishnammal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu. The defendants in the said suit L. Ramaswamy Naidu, L. Bakhtavatsalam, L.Jagannathan and L. Venkatapathy, were all sons of Lakshmiah Naidu. The 5th defendant was one N.V. Rama Chandra Naidu, son of Venkata Swamy Naidu (the executor of the will set up by Krishnamaal) . The plaint is dated 10.4.1958 which incidentally is the date on which Lakshmiah Naidu passed away. In brief, the case of the plaintiff, Krishnammal, may be noted as hereunder. Krishnammal reiterated the case set up before the Magistrate that her husband and Lakshmiah were living together jointly as members of an undivided family till 1932. In 1932 there was an oral partition. The properties described in Schedule ‘I’ to the plaint fell to the share of her late husband Rangaswami Naidu. He had separate possession and enjoyment of those properties. Thereafter, he acquired several other properties in his name. Those properties were scheduled as Schedule IA. Rangaswami Naidu who was an elected member of the legislative counsel developed cancer of the throat. He with an intention of formalizing of the oral partition in 1932 prepared a list of properties both self-acquired and ancestral and a similar list of defendants’ properties and sent it to his brother for his approval. The list was returned back with certain corrections in the handwriting of Lakshmiah Naidu. Her late husband published a notice on 10-05-1955 in the local daily that he was a divided member since 1932 and he was publishing the notice to make the declaration of his separate share and status. Lakshmiah however was alleged to have assumed the attitude that coparcenary was undivided and disputed the correctness and justness of notice and sent notice dated 11/05/1955. Krishnammal’s husband sent a reply on 16/05/1955. The plaintiff Krishnammal also stated that there was a Will on 10/5/1955 and it was duly registered and further that in the will he has referred to the oral partition in the year 1932. Under the Will it was claimed that the properties in schedule I and IA were set apart for Krishnammal for life and also made further disposition of the remainder mainly in favour of his sisters’ sons. She made reference to the proceedings under Section 145 of CrPC. She also drew inspiration from the stand of Lakshmiah Naidu that the brothers continued to be the members of the Hindu Undivided Family and that in view of the said stand alleged that she must be deemed to be in joint possession along with defendants 1 to 4. Krishnammal claimed that possession by the defendants in properties Schedule I and IA was unlawful. She further stated that as a legal representative of her husband and as legatees under a Will she is bound to adopt the position taken viz., that that her husband was a divided member and that an oral partition had taken place in 1932 and that the registered will executed by him was valid. In the alternative it would appear she set up the following case:

“11. The plaintiff however further states that even on the very case set up by R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu in the 145 proceedings and the admission made by him, her rights are even better and as a coparcener she is entitled under the combined operation of Acts XVIII of 1937 and XXX of 1956 to an absolute state in one half of the joint properties and to demand partition and possession of her share. Defendants 1 to 4 are entitled to the other half share. The plaintiff is unable to specify exactly all the properties in the possession of defendants 1 to 4 but as far as she has been able to do so, she has set them out I schedule II. The plaintiff craves leave to add to them as and when she gets better particulars. The plaintiff also prays that the defendants 1 to 4 might be called upon to make a full and true disclosure of the joint family properties in their possession.

12 . The plaintiff states that so far as she is concerned, she is perfectly willing to adopt the defendant’s contentions as put forward in the 145 proceedings and that it is not open to the defendants to go back upon the same. Consequently the plaintiff states that in the circumstances, her rights are indisputable and she is entitled to be placed in immediate possession of the properties described in schedule I and I-A pending a final decree in the suit or she is entitled to have a receiver appointed in respect of the properties in all the schedules so as to secure to her, her just rights.”

6. Krishnammal further stated that in case the alternative case is accepted, she is entitled to have an account taken as part of the relief of partition of the income of the movable and immovable properties in the hands of Lakshmiah Naidu. Cause of action in the said suit was set out in para 17, as follows:

“17. The cause of action for the suit arose on 1.6.1955 when Rangaswami Naidu died and on or about June 1955 when the defendant No.1 to 4 unlawfully trespassed on the properties, on 16.4.1956 when the Revenue divisional Officer, Coimbatore, upheld the possession of R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu and his sons and on 26.9.1957 when the High Court refused to interfere with the order of the Revenue divisional Officer, Coimbatore within the jurisdiction of this Hon’ble Court where the properties are situate.

The relief sought in the said suit was inter alia as follows:

“1. for a declaration that the properties in Schedule – I and I-A belong to the plaintiff and for possession of the same with past mesne profits of Rs.7000/- realized by receiver appointed in 145 proceedings and future mesne profits as may be determined by court.

2. for recovery of Rs.6000/- referred to in para 14 of the plaint:

In the alternative, I, that an account may be taken of what the joint property of the family consists of and the income therefrom from the date of division in status i.e. 10.5.1955:2. that a Commissioner be appointed to divide the properties by metes and bounds;

3. for a division of the plaint properties into two equal shares and for possession of one such share to the plaintiff.

xxx xxx xxx”

The said suit came to be contested by the defendants 1 to 4 on lines similar to the case set up before the Magistrate in 145 proceedings. The suit however came to be compromised on the following terms.

As per the endorsement on the plaint it appeared to the court that the parties had agreed to compromise the matter and noticing the deed of compromise, the following decree was passed and thereafter the terms of the compromise inter alia are set out as follows:

“1. That the plaintiff be and hereby is entitled absolutely to the immovable properties in items 1 to 7 in the schedule described hereunder and that defendants 1 to 4 do put the plaintiff in possession of the same;

2. that defendants 1 to 4 to pay plaintiff monies described in items 8,9 and 13, discharge the decree debt mentioned in item 10 and help plaintiff in getting items 11 and 12 transferred to her name within forty five days from this date and in default, thereof, the plaintiff be at liberty to execute this decree for the aforesaid reliefs.

3. that plaintiffs do have no right or claim in the property belonging to her husband of R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu or defendants 1 to 4 jointly or individually, except such care as she is already in possession of;

4. That defendants 1 to 4 do pay arrears of income tax if any, and the Estate duty, on the estate of the plaintiff’s husband R.V. Rangaswami Naidu and his brother R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu;

5. That defendants 1 to 3 do at their own cost and expense, attend to any further dispute regarding the proportion belonging to the family, that defendants 1 to 4 do bear the responsibility in protesting the titles to the properties including the properties allotted to the plaintiff and that plaintiff is not bound to contribute anything therefore, that defendants 1 to 4 do have no further rights in the properties taken by the plaintiff and that plaintiff do have no right in respect of the properties whether in the name of R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu or otherwise;

6. that plaintiff do act with defendants 1 to 4 is presenting for enhanced compensation for the land …. Of which a sum of Rs.6775/- is now in Court . .C.C. 17/58 on the file of this Court, that defendants 1 to 4 alone be entitled to any such enhanced compensation and that defendants 1 to 4 do bear the entire cost in that proceeding.

7. That the parties are at liberty to register this final decree within a week after its being ready;

8. That each party do bear her or his own costs;

There are other details we need not be detained by.

THIRD STAGE OF LITIGATION

7. This brings us to the third stage of the seemingly unending litigation. Here, the curtain is raised by the filing of O.S. No. 36 of 1963. The plaintiffs in the said Suit are R. Alagiriswami Naidu and V. Kalyanaswami. R. Alagiriswami is the son of one Krishnamaal (sister of one Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu and different from the widow of Rangaswami Naidu). V. Kalyanaswami is the nephew of Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu through their sister Thayammal. Both of the plaintiffs are among the appellants before us. The defendants were as follows:

The first defendant in the said case was none other than R. Krishnammal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu. M.V. Ramachandra Naidu the 2nd defendant was the executor of the disputed Will. The third defendant was R. Sounderajan, s/o K.P. Rangappa Naidu yet another nephew of R.V. Rangasamay Naidu and Lakshmiah Nadu. The fourth defendant was A. Alagiriswami, yet another nephew of R.V. Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Nadu through yet another sister. The 3rd and 4th defendants are also appellants before us. Defendants 5 and 6 were persons against whom the allegation was that the first defendant R. Krishnammal had purported to convey items 1 to 3 and 7 respectively to them. In brief, the case set up by the plaintiffs in O.S. No.36 of 1963 was as follows:

They referred to will dated 10/05/1955 left behind by their uncle Rangaswami Naidu. There is reference made to the life estate in favour of first defendant, the wife of Rangaswami Naidu and the absolute right created in favour of plaintiffs and defendants 3 and 4. Still further there is reference to O.S.No.71 of 1958 and that the suit came to be compromised. It was contended that there was no necessity to enter into such compromise as it was not beneficial to the estate also. R. Krishna had only a life estate. She was not competent and did not represent the interest of the plaintiffs and defendants 3 and 4. The decree insofar as it purported to confer absolute right on R. Krishnammal was not valid or binding on the plaintiffs and defendants 3 and 4. Plaintiffs and defendants 3 and 4 had vested interest in the properties but were not impleaded as parties. It is further alleged that R. Krishnammal could not enlarge her right by any compromise. She had only a life interest. Plaintiffs give a notice dated 10/05/1959 calling upon R. Krishnammal, the first defendant to acknowledge her interest being only a life estate and thus to desist from alienating the property. Para 11 of the plaint may be noticed. It reads as follows:

“11. The will of R.V. Rangaswami Naidu comprised other properties also other than those described herein which under the compromise decree have been given by the 1st defendant to her husband’s brother’s sons. The plaintiffs reserve their rights in respect of those properties to a separate action”

Issues were framed in the said suit. The suit came to be amended by order dated 17/10/1970. Defendants 7 to 10 came to be impleaded on the basis of order passed in IA No.925 of 1970. Defendants 7 to 10 were the four sons of Lakshmiah Naidu viz., Bakthavatsalam, Venkatapathy, Jagannathan and Ramaswamy. The prayer in the suit was as follows:

a) Declaring that the 1st defendant has only life estate in the properties described hereunder without any powers of alienation and that plaintiffs and defendants 3 and 4 have a vested remainder in the said properties under the will of the late R.V. Rangaswami Naidu.

b) Directing the 1st defendant to pay the plaintiff the costs of this suit;

and

c) Granting the plaintiff such other and further relief as this court may deem fit and proper in the circumstances of the case.

The said suit also did not culminate in an adjudication by the Court. Instead the parties opted for a compromise. The compromise decree is dated 18.2.1974 and reveals the course which commended itself to the parties and it reads as follows inter alia:

“The plaintiffs and the defendants 1 and 3 having made a joint endorsement on the plaint and counsel appearing for the defendants 5 and 7 to 10 also having signed in token of their having seen the endorsement, this Court in terms of the joint endorsement both order and decree:-

1. That the 1st defendant Smt. Krishnammal has only a life estate in the items 5 and 6 of the plaint schedule properties more fully described hereunder, and that the 1st defendant be and hereby is entitled to enjoy the said properties for her life without powers of alienation and after her life – time the said items of properties shall go to the plaintiffs and 1 and 2 and defendants 2 and 4 herein.

2 . That each party do bear his or her own costs in this suit.

Terms of joint endorsement by plaintiffs and defendants 1 to 3 made on 18.2.1974.

1. The may be a decree prayed for by the plaintiff in respect of plaint items 5 and 6 alone, viz. S.No.467 0.98 ac. in this 0.82 ac. Within the boundaries in the plaint and S. No. 4 66, 6.02 ac. In this 3.60 ac. Within the boundaries described in the plaint and situate in Kalapatti village. The 1st defendant is entitled to enjoy the said items for her life without powers of alienation and after her life time they will go to the plaintiffs 1 and 2 and defendant 3 and 4.

The defendants 1 and 2 hereby declare that they have not encumbered or alienated the said items in any manner.

2 . The plaintiffs give up the reliefs claimed in respect of plaint items 1 to 3, sold to the 5th defendants, plaint items 4, acquired by the Government and plaint item 7, which has been sold to the 6th defendant. The plaintiffs…. On these items and agree that the alienees are entitled to an absolute title.

3.Each party will bear his or her costs of the suit.

4. The plaintiffs and defendants 1 to 3 pray that there may be a decree on the above terms against defendants 3 and 4 also. No relief is claimed against the other defendants in this suit.”

TWO DEATHS

8. Ramaswamy Naidu son of Lakshmiah Naidu passed away in the year 1976. A year later in 1977 R. Krishnamaal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu also expired.

4th STAGE

9. After the death of R. Krishnammal in 1977 O.S. No. 732 of 1981 was filed by R. Alagiriswami Naidu. Defendants 1 to 3 in the said suit were V. Kalayanaswamy, Soundararajan and A. Alagiriswami. It will be noticed that the plaintiff and the defendants 1 to 3 therein are the legatees under the Will and are among the appellants before us. The case set up in the said plaint (A16) was inter alia thatplaint schedule property in the said case was items 5 and 6 in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 as noticed earlier. The compromise decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 entitled R. Krishnammal only to a life interest and the vested remainder was with the plaintiff and defendants 1 to 3. Further, the case of the plaintiff was that in view of the death of R. Krishnammal on 30.04.1977, the plaintiffs and defendants 1 to 3 were in joint possession of the properties. It was complained that the first defendant had purported to sell 1.2 acres to defendants 4 to 5. The cause of action was alleged to arise on the basis of compromise decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 dated 18.02.1974 declaring the plaintiffs’ right to a vested remainder subject to the life estate of R. Krishnammal. The prayer was for a decree of partition.

10. A17 is the written statement which was filed by the 3rd defendant A. Alagiriswami who prayed for a decree of partition and allotting his l/4th share. It is also alleged that the property was in the joint possession of the plaintiff and the defendants.

11. A18 is the decree passed in O.S. No. 732 of 1981. It is dated 21.06.1984 passed by the Additional Sub-Judge, Coimbatore ordering a decree for partition.

5th STAGE / THE PRESENT LITIGATION

12. Apparently, the trigger for the present litigation was provided by certain transactions by way of sale entered into by A. Alagiriswami (one of the four legatees under the alleged Will by Rangaswami Naidu) . The first of the two suits which has generated the appeals before us was filed by eight plaintiffs. It is O.S. No. 2087/82 [However it was renumbered as O.S. No. 649/1985]. The first three plaintiffs are the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu, the 4th plaintiff is the widow of Ramaswamy Naidu who was one of the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu who, as noted, passed away in 1976. Plaintiffs 5 to 8 are the daughters of Ramaswamy Naidu.

13. As far as the defendants are concerned, the first defendant is A. Alagiriswami whose actions apparently were the proximate cause of the suit. Defendants 2, 3 and 4 are the other nephews of Rangaswami Naidu who claim under the will. Thus, defendants 1 to 4 are the nephews of Rangaswami Naidu and who are legatees under the will and among the appellants before us. Defendants 5 to 26 were arrayed with allegations that certain items of the suit properties were conveyed by first defendant A. Alagiriswami to them. Defendants 27 to 33 are LRs of 10th defendant impleaded vide order dated 29.4.1987. The plaintiffs have reiterated their case as in the previous litigation which is briefly noted as hereinunder:

14. Properties belong ancestrally to R. Lakshmiah Naidu and his brother Rangaswami Naidu. Lakshmiah Naidu and his brother Rangaswami Naidu constituted the joint Hindu Family and the plaint schedule property were the joint properties. Rangaswami Naidu died in 1955 without any issues and without any partition, therefore, the suit properties, on the death of Rangaswami Naidu being coparcenary properties on his death, the surviving coparcener Lakshmiah Naidu took all the properties. Krishnamaal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu was only entitled to limited interest as per the law on that date. The death of Rangaswami Naidu before Hindu Succession Act resulted in the surviving co-parceners taking all the property by survivorship. Reference was made to O.S.No.71 of 1958. It is averred that plaintiffs came to know of the will only after the death of Rangaswami Naidu. Will is described as false, frivolous and untenable. It is averred that the alleged will was executed by Rangaswami Naidu under the undue influence of defendants 1 to 4. Taking advantage of the serious illness of Rangaswami Naidu who was suffering from cancer, defendants seem to be coerced him to execute the will which contains false recitals. Will is not a genuine document. It is also untenable as per Hindu law as it stood on that date. Any will by coparcener of his undivided interest in his property is illegal and invalid. It was for this reason to sustain the illegal will, certain false recitals were put in the will about the oral division that there was an oral division between the brothers. The recital is said to be false and unfounded. Until the death of Rangaswami Naidu, the brothers constituted the joint Hindu Family and there was no division and there was no partition. Thereafter, there is reference to litigation which wehave referred to already. Still later allegations were made as follows in para 13 alone. It reads as follows:

“XIII. Defendants 1 to 4 knowing fully well that their collusive attempt to get at the property have failed miserably started creating trouble and complications. Recently they have purported to convey certain items of the suit property in favour of their own partisans out of ulterior motives. Knowing fully well that the defendants 1 to 4 cannot claim any right to the suit properties on the basis of the will in view of their own prior conduct and also in view of the fact that the said will is invalid and in operative have and fictitious documents in favour of their own partisan out of ulterior motives. The plaintiffs understand that certain items of suit property have been sold by A. Alagirisami, the 1st defendant to defendants 5 to 26. The plaintiffs submit that the …. Are void and in operative. These plaintiffs are not parties to the said also deeds and they are entitled to ignore the said transactions.”

It is further stated that in 1960, the plaintiffs have divided their properties in their own right. They have been paying kist for the properties all along. They have been paying agricultural income tax on the basis that the properties are their own.

It is also stated that even assuming that Krishnammal acquired life interest in the undivided share of her husband on his death which became subsequently absolute on her death in testate. Her husband’s share had reverted both by survivorship and succession to plaintiffs 1 to 3 and their late brother Ramaswamy. It is further contended that without prejudice to the contentions in the plaint, even if the will executed by Rangaswami is sustainable, the life interest in respect of the properties mentioned in the will conferred on his widow, Krishnammal became absolute by virtue of Act 30 of 1956 with the result that Krishnammal became the absolute owner of the properties including the suit property.

15. Referring to O.S. No.732 of 1981 filed before the Sub-Court, Coimbatore in regard to claiming partition, it was contended that R. Krishnammal having parted with the suit property in favour of the plaintiffs under the compromise decree in O.S. No.71/1958 in the Sub-Court, Coimbatore, the defendants 1 to 4 cannot make any claim to the same. The same stood acknowledged by defendants 1 to 4 in proceedings in O.S.No.36 of 1963 and O.S.No.732 of 1981 in the Sub-Court Coimbatore.

16. The plaintiffs sought declaration of title and also prayed for injunction. It is on the basis that they were in possession and the action of the first defendant (A. Alagiriswami) in executing sale deed in favour of the other defendants was without any authority and they were attempting to disturb the possession of the plaintiffs.

17. OS No.89 of 1983 is the other suit filed by the appellants side by R. Alagiriswami who is one of the legatees (also the plaintiff in OS No.732 of 1981) and showing defendants 1 to 3 as the other legatees under the Will, defendants 4 to 11 representing the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu and defendants 13 to 33 were the purchasers from the first defendant. In the said suit, the relief sought was for partition of the plaint schedule property. Plaintiff also sought compensation, mesne profits besides declaration of their right. In brief, the case set up is as follows:

The plaintiff referred to the Will executed by his uncle. He further based the suit on the fact that R. Krishnammal died on 30.04.1977. It was averred that plaintiff and defendants 1 to 3 upon the death of R. Krishnammal have equal right. The properties are in the possession of defendants 4 to 6 who were the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu. Reference is made to O.S.No.649 of 1985 and it is pointed out that the said suit is not maintainable. There is reference to the oral division of the properties between Lakshmiah Naidu and Rangaswami Naidu in 1932. There is further reference to the proceeding under Section 145 of the CrPC. Later reference is made to O.S. No. 71 of 1958. It was averred that the decree in the said suit was invalid. Under the Will, R. Krishnammal had only the right to enjoy the property during her lifetime. The plaintiff and defendants 1 to 3 were not parties and the decree will not bind them. Thereafter, R.Krishnammal tried to sell the aforesaid property in her possession. Thereupon, O.S.No.36 of 1963 was filed objecting to the sale. There is mention about the compromise. It is their case that defendants 4 to 11 who have joined as parties in that case have supported the compromise which means that it must be considered that they accepted the Will. Written statements were filed wherein as far as the respondents were concerned; they accepted the same stand as they had in the plaint in the suit filed by them.

Both the suits were tried together. Al to A117 were produced on the side of the plaintiffs in O.S.No.649 of 1985. On the defendants side, who were the plaintiffs in OS No.89 of 1983, B1 to B18 were marked. The trial court treated O.S.No.649 of 1985 as the leading case. C1 is marked as Court Exhibit along with XI which is the finger print register in the Registrar’s office. By judgment dated 12.08.1989 the learned Additional Sub Judge proceeded to dismiss O.S. No.89 of 1983 with costs whereas O.S.No.649 of 1985 was decreed with costs.

18. The Trial Court after framing issues concluded that the case that Rangaswami Naidu and his brother had orally partitioned the properties in the year 1932, could not be accepted. It is further found that the Will dated 10.5.1955 set up by Rangaswami Naidu, was invalid for the reason that as on the said date, the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 containing, inter alia, Section 30 had not come into force since Rangaswami Naidu was joint with his brother and the Hindu undivided family had not been disrupted under the law prior to the Hindu Succession Act. It is also found that the Will was afflicted with many suspicious circumstances. Though the Will was attacked by the legal heirs of Lakshmiah Naidu on the ground that it was procured by coercion and undue influence, the said arguments were not accepted. The Trial Court also found that even proceeding on the basis of the Will, in favour of Krishnammal, having regard to Section 14(1) of Hindu Succession Act, the life estate blossomed into absolute rights in favour of Krishnammal which meant the case set up by the appellants that they had the remainder, could not be accepted. The suit filed by the appellants came to be dismissed whereas the suit filed by legal heirs of Lakshmiah Naidu, came to be decreed. In the appeals, the First Appellate Court agreed with the Trial Court that there was no oral partition as claimed between Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu. However, the Court finds that having regard to the publication made on 10.5.1955, in the newspaper, there was a disruption in the status of the Hindu undivided family. It meant that the Will was validly made by the Rangaswami Naidu. The Appellate Court did not find merit in the findings of the Trial Court regarding presence of suspicious circumstances. Revering the finding of the Trial court, the Appellate Court found that having regard to the restricted estate created under the Will, it is Section 14(2) of Hindu Succession Act and not Section 14(1) which would apply. The First Appellate Court found that it is Section 69 of the Evidence Act which would apply in the facts of the case and not Section 68 of the Evidence Act. In other words, it was found that the present was a case where both the attesting witnesses to the Will were dead. B-7 was a copy of the deposition of the attesting witnesses. What is required under Section 69 stood proved. That apart, the First Appellate Court noted the fact that the Will was registered and that the executor appointed under the Will, was the nephew of his wife Krishnammal and this again pointed out to their being no foul play in the matter of the creation of the Will. Exhibit (C-l) was an affidavit filed by the son of the executor in response to direction to produce original of the Will. The First Appellate Court found that the original Will was, in fact, produced before the Magistrate in proceedings under Section 145 and marking of secondary evidence of the Will, was in fact found justified by both the Trial Court and the First Appellate Court. On the basis of these evidence, the First Appellate Court allowed the appeals filed by the appellants and decreed O.S. No. 36 of 1963 and decreed partition as claimed by dividing the property into four parts. The suit filed by the respondents came to be dismissed.

19. The High Court, in the second Appeals by the impugned judgment has found that Will could not be relied upon, as the requirement under Section 68 of the Evidence Act was not fulfilled. (B-7) the deposition of one of the attesting witnesses to the Will did not establish due execution of the Will, in that, it did not establish the attestation of the Will by the other alleged attesting witness Dr. Iyer. The High Court also found that Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applied. This is on the basis that R. Krishnammal, wife of Ranagasamy Naidu had a pre-existing right to maintenance. Section 14(2) would therefore, not apply. The Will was appreciated in the context of her pre-existing right to maintenance to Krishnammal. This enlarged her limited estate under Section 14(1). On the said basis of the findings and the restoration of judgment of the Trial Court under the impugned judgment, the appeals are filed before us.

A CLOSER LOOK AT THE ISSUES AND FINDINGS OF THE TRIAL COURT

20. The trial court framed 14 issues in O.S.No.649 of 1985 and an additional issue. In OS 89 of 1983 the trial Court framed 3 issues and one additional issue. The trial court answers issue No.1 in O.S.No.89 of 1983which was whether there was an oral partition as claimed by the appellant between Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu as follows:

It is found that it is not clearly proved that there was an oral partition. Bl notice is referred to as letter dated 12.5.1955. It was further found that the notice allegedly sent by Lakshmiah Naidu dated 11.5.1955 was not produced by the plaintiffs or defendants though the trial court referred to B43 produced in Section 145 proceedings. Equally, the notice dated 16.5.1955 which was alleged to have been sent by Rangaswami Naidu was also not produced even though it is noted that B44 was produced in Section 145 proceedings. The Court also referred to the case of Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambr Gopal Sulakhe, AIR 1986 SC 79. It also noted the argument that by the Will there was a division. It goes to find that though PW1 has stated that Rangaswami Naidu has filed Estate duty returns separately and was paying income tax separately and had separate Bank account, A13 to A15 documents showed that transactions were entered into which showed that the Hindu Undivided Family consisting of coparceners continued jointly even after 1932. This is despite noticing that there was separate acquisition of property by Rangaswami Naidu sought to be established by B3 to B5. These properties are treated as ancestral and finally the court has answered issue No.2 in favour of the respondents by holding that there was no oral partition in the year 1932.

Issue no.1 which was whether the Will dated 12.5.1955 had been written by Ranga Samy Naidu and was valid and genuine and whether the Will was executed after his death, is answered as follows:

The trial court finds that the original Will was produced before the Magistrate in the proceedings under Section 145 as Exhibit B68 rejecting the contention of the respondents that original Will was not produced even before the Magistrate. The trial court further refers to C1 notice to the son of the executor of the Will to produce the Will. It also considers the affidavit filed by the son to the effect that he was not in possession of the Will and finds that the copy of the Will was marked as BIO. The trial court then went on to consider how far the Will was genuine and whether B7 could be relied upon. B7 is the deposition given by Venkataswami Naidu who was allegedly one of the attesting witnesses to the Will dated 10.05.1955. This deposition was given by him in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC. The trial court went on to discuss his evidence. It found that in the said evidence (B7) the attesting witness has not spoken about the attestation by the other witness. He has deposed that the other witness came and left before the Registrar came. The Will was already typed. It is not stated as to who has prepared the Will. The witness has not deposed in B7 that the testator was conscious. It was very doubtful. It was found doubtful as to whether he has executed the Will out of free will. There was on pages 1 and 4 of the Will portions written in ink. They are not referred to at the end of the Will. The original of the Will was also not produced. This led to strong doubts. The court took the view merely because FW1 in his previous statement in proceedings under Section 145 has deposed that the signature of Rangaswami Naidu was there in all the pages of the Will, it could not be understood that the respondent had accepted the Will as genuine. The case of the appellants that the other attesting witness who was the doctor and a family friend would not have lend his name if the Will was concocted and that B12 was an advertisement issued by the family on the death of the other attesting witness, that is, the doctor also did not appeal to the court and it entered the finding that Will was not genuine. The court also in paragraph 32 notices that the testator had 5 sisters out of which one sister did not have any issue. The 4 other sisters had male and female children. The fact that only one son born to each sister was bequeathed the property under the Will, also created doubt. The issue was accordingly answered. It is also found that as it was not proved that there was a partition, the Will would be invalid. The decision of this Court in Nanni Bai and Others vs. Gita Bai, AIR 1958 SC 706 and Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambar Gopal Sulakhe And Ors. (supra) were adverted to. Issue No.1 was accordingly answered. The finding was that the Will was not genuine and it was not valid.

21. Issue No.3 was whether Lakshmiah Naidu inherited the property by survivorship. It was found that Rangaswami Naidu died without leaving behind a Will but he was survived by his widow R. Krishnammal. R. Krishnammal had right of maintenance in the half share of the property of Rangaswami Naidu. She had right under the Hindu Women Right to Property Act, 1937. The trial court therefore, answered the issue against the respondents and in favour of the appellants. This means that the finding of the trial court is that the respondents are not entitled to the plaint scheduled property in their own right on the basis that Lakshmiah Naidu became absolutely entitled under Hindu law being the sole survivor upon the death of his brother Rangaswami Naidu.

22. Next issue which is issue No. 4 was whether plaintiff in OS No.89 of 1983 and defendant 1 to 3 were estopped by the proceedings under Section 145 CrPC. The issue was answered in favour of the appellants by holding that they were not made parties and order will not bind them.

23. Issue No.5 was whether the decree in OS No.71 of 1958 was deceitful, invalid and whether it binds the plaintiff (plaintiff in OS No.89 of 1983). This issue was answered as follows:

It was found that A2 decree in OS No.71 of 1958 resulted in R. Krishnammal the widow being conferred absolute right upon her in regard to Items 1 to 7 in the said suit. It was found that there was no evidence of any deceit. It was further found that in OS No. 36 of 1963 (A3) in the written statement filed by R. Krishnammal (A4) , it was stated that the compromise was as desired by her. The issue was answered thus against the appellants.

24. The trial court thereafter considered Issue No.6 and additional issue No.l in OS No.89 of 1983. Answering issue No. 6 which was whether the decree in O.S. No.36 of 1963 would constitute res judicata, it was found that there is no bar of res judicata involved as the suit had been compromised. Regarding the additional issue which was whether by virtue of having filed O.S. No.36 of 1963, the bar under Order II Rule 2 of C.P.C. stood attracted and barred the filing of the OS No.89 of 1983,the court found that permission was not sought from the court to reserve the right to file a fresh suit in regard to property other than those which were scheduled in OS No. 36 of 1963. The plaintiff had acted unilaterally in the matter. The Court found that the bar under Order II Rule2was attracted.

25. Issue No.7 which was whether the case set up by defendant No.1 (A. Alagiriswami) that there was an oral partition between him and plaintiff and defendants 2 and 3, it was answered against defendant No. 1 and it was found that such a partition was not proved.

26. Issue No.8 and 10 related to non-joinder, misjoinder and whether defendants 13 to 34 in OS No.83 of 1983 were necessary parties was answered by finding that there was no misjoinder or non- joinder and there was no evidence that there was any unnecessary party.(It must be remembered in this regard that the relevance of defendants 13 to 34 is that they are persons to whom part of plaint scheduled property stood transferred by the first defendant on the basis of the alleged oral partition).

27. Allied to this issue was issue No.12 which was whether defendants 13 to 34 were entitled to any equitable relief. This issue was answered against defendants 13 to 34.

28. Issue No.11 and 13 related to questions ancillary to the issue whether the plaintiff had right in the property and right to partition. Both the issues were answered against the plaintiffs. Then the Court went on to consider issue No. 1 in OS No. 649 of 1985. The issue was whether R. Krishnammal had absolute right over the property governed by the Will on the basis of Hindu Succession Act. The Court went on to hold that the right of R. Krishnammal became absolute under Section 14(1) of the Act.

29. Finally, the court took up the issue in OS No. 649 of 1985 which was whether the plaintiffs therein were entitled to relief, as prayed in the plaint and whether they were entitled to injunction. The court found that the plaint schedule property was ancestral property. The plaintiffs were legal heirs of Lakshmiah Naidu and on the death of Rangaswami Naidu and they became entitled on the basis of the compromise decree passed in OS No. 71 of 1958 as a result of R. Krishnammal giving up her right. OS No. 649 of 1985 was decreed and OS No.89 of 1983 came to be dismissed.

PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE FIRST APPELLATE COURT

30. Four first appeals were filed against the common judgment – AS No. 194 of 1989 was filed by the plaintiff in OS No. 89 of 1989, AS No. 195 of 1989 was filed by the same person R. Alagiriswami but as defendant in OS No.649 of 1985 challenging the decree in the said suit. AS No.320 of 1992 was filed by one V. Kalyanaswami who was defendant No. 2 in OS No. 649 of 1985 challenging the decree therein. V. Kalyanaswami is also the appellant in AS No. 225 of 1992 challenging the judgment in OS No. 89 of 1983 wherein he was defendant No. 2 (be it noted that there was no appeal filed by any of the other defendants including defendant D13 to D34 in OS No. 89 of 1983) who were also defendants in O.S. No.689 of 1985.

FINDINGS OF THE FIRST APPELLATE COURT

31. The first appellate court agreed with the trial court that it was not proved that the suit property and the other property were separate property as they were given to Rangaswami Naidu in 1932. The court however finds that this could not lead to the conclusion that Rangaswami Naidu died joint and not separated from Hindu Undivided Family at the time of death. The appellate court finds that by giving B1 advertisement in a newspaper, a division was effected in status. Rangaswami Naidu unilaterally allotted some of the properties of the HUF share and detailed Will was written as would be explained later. The court went on to then hold that he was a member of the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council. He and his brother possessed several properties between 1944 and 1958. PW1 accepted that in addition the family has purchased 1000 acres of land. Sisters of Rangaswami Naidu were leading ordinary life. He was very much attached to his sisters. He was living in the residential bungalow of his sister-Ammani Ammal. He selected one son each of his own sister. Shares in a Mill was given to his brother. The selection of his wife’s nephew, as executor was also considered. The court found acceptance of the registered copy of the Will as secondary evidence as “totally correct”. Relying upon B7 deposition and Section 69 of the Evidence Act, it was found that the requirements of Section 69 of the Evidence Act were fulfilled. Registration dispelled all suspicion. The fact that Rl testator refused to affix the mark impression and insisted on signing, was also relied upon to show that he had sound disposing capacity. The suspicious circumstances noted by the trial court did not appeal to the court as such. BIO Will was found to be genuine. The burden to prove that the Will was obtained by coercion and undue influence was not discharged by the respondents. The court went on to find that B1 had caused a division in status. It finds that B1 was published by Rangaswami Naidu on 10.5.1955. Lakshmiah Naidu wrote a letter to Rangaswami Naidu on 11.05.1955 rejecting B1 and stated that Rangaswami Naidu was still continuing as member of HUF. Rangaswami Nadu sent a reply letter on 16.05.1955 confirming Bl. They were marked as B43 and B44 is Section 145 proceedings. Rejecting the argument of the respondents that there was no issue raised as to whether division was effected vide Bl newspaper statement, it found that there was pleading in the written statement of defendant No.1 and in the counter statement of the other defendants. Plaintiffs and the respondents were not surprised as regards the contention that it was not open to a member of an undivided family to unilaterally allot property to his share, as was done by Rangaswami Naidu. It was found meritless and supported as follows:

Respondents did not raise any objection regarding unilateral allotment in OS 71 OF 1958 and OS 36 of 1963. Secondly, it was noticed that there were more than 93 items amounting to 100s of acres belonging to HUF and what was unilaterally allotted was only a small part of the properties. The court finds that “it could not think of that as totally unjustified”. The court noticed the decision of this Court in Bhagwant P. Sulakhe case (supra). This was dealt with by holding that that was a case where there was a problem of partnership and it was so decided. The letter of Rangaswami Naidu dated 16.05.1955 was relied upon wherein he confirmed B1 advertisement and it was found that it was unable “to consider this as a unilateral act of declaration” and to decide that this act does not change the joint family character of the properties. It is stated that regarding the problem, it is decided that B1 created a division in status. Even though Rangaswami Naidu did unilateral allotment, Lakshmiah Naidu and sons accepted the unilateral allotment in their subsequent conduct and therefore not entitled to challenge the Will.

32. The argument of estoppel raised against the appellants based on the conduct of the appellants in OS No.36 of 1963 in accepting the absolute title of R. Krishnammal in items No. 1 to 3, 4 and 7 was found without merit. It found that items 1,3 and 4 were items sold by R. Krishnammal to defendants 5 and 6 in the said suit. Item No.7 was the land acquired by the government. It was found that there was no evidence to reveal on what basis defendants 1 to 4 have acted qua the compromise in regard to the properties sold and item acquired by the Government. It was found further that the compromise was with regard to the items sold and acquired and even the court cannot decide this situation as acting against the appellants. Thereafter, the Court finds that in BIO Will, 19 items of properties are mentioned. Items 1 to 7 to which R. Krishnammal was given absolute title under the compromise decree were scheduled as suit properties in OS No. 36 of 1963. The argument of the respondents that as the appellants had accepted that R. Krishnammal has abandoned her right in the other property in OS No. 71 of 1958 those properties were not scheduled in OS No. 36 of 1963 and the bar of Order II Rule 2 would apply, was repelled. The Court found that the plaintiff in OS No. 36 of 1963 had reserved the right. Secondly the bar of Order II, Rule 2 will not apply having regard to the death of R. Krishnammal much after1963, which was in 1977. It was found that Order 2 Rule 2 cannot apply, as in 1963 the plaintiff did not have the right which accrued to them (legatees) only upon the death of R. Krishnammal as absolute owners under the Will. It was further found that the decree in OS No. 36 of 1963 further diluted the compromise decree in OS No. 71 of 1958 wherein R. Krishnammal was conferred absolute title in items 1 to 7. Under decree in OS No. 36 of 1963 the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu were joined as parties. They had appointed an advocate. The advocate has made a joint endorsement for the compromise decree. Under the decree in OS No. 36 of 1963, the right over items 5 and 6 was by way of reserving life interest in favour of R. Krishnammal and this was found to be against respondents. Thus, a right under the Will was conferred by the conduct of the parties. Regarding the controversy qua Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, it was found that R. Krishnammal had prayed for the right under Section 14 (1) only as alternative relief in OS No. 71 of 1958. The court found it unable to decide that the absolute right given to R. Krishnammal in OS No. 71 of 1958 was given in accordance with her right under Section 14 (1) and had it being the case the appellants should have been made parties and the executor of the Will would not have been exonerated. It was found that R. Krishnammal had no intention to obtain absolute right under Section 14 (1) . It was further found that the conduct of the respondents was in a manner that she should not get her share in property. Lakshmiah Naidu and his sons conducted proceedings under Section 145 to withhold property in their possession. In OS No. 71 of 1958 they gave items 1 to 7 by a pittance for the compromise. R. Krishnammal, it was held, accepted her estate for life as something was better than nothing. It was found noteworthy that in OS No. 71 of 1958, it was not openly stated by R. Krishnammal that she had a right under Section 14 (1) and she has abandoned all the properties except items 1 to 7 therein. The compromise decree in OS No. 36 of 1963 revealed that the parties intended to follow the Will, as could be seen from bestowing life interest in items by them by diluting the compromise decree in OS No. 71 of 1958. Accordingly Appeal No. 195 of 1989 and Appeal no. 20of 1989 were allowed. OS No. 649 of 1985 was dismissed. Appeal No. AS No. 194 of 1989, AS No. 225 of 1992 were also allowed setting aside the judgement in OS No. 89 of 1983, the said suit was decreed. It was ordered that schedule II properties should be divided into 4 equal shares and one share should be allotted to the plaintiff. A preliminary decree for partition was passed and further mesne profit was to be decided based on application under Order 20 Rule 12 CPC.

FINDINGS OF HIGH COURT IN THE IMPUGNED JUDGMENT

33. In one common judgment, the High Court disposed of the second appeals. It found that both the courts had concurrently found that there was no proof that there was a partition in 1932. It went on to find that in such circumstance, the question was whether there was a division before the death of Rangaswami Naidu. It notes that there is no issue raised that a division was brought about by issuing B1. The first appellate court, it was noticed, framed specific issue of division based on B1. Based on B1, division of status was not proved. It went on to agree with respondents that the plaintiff in OS No.89 of 1983 relied upon B1 dated 12.05.1955 while the first defendant in OS No.649 of 1985 in the written statement has stated that Rangaswami Naidu had issued the public notice on 10.05.1955 that he was a divided member from his brother since 1932 for which a notice was issued on 11.05.1955 and for which a reply was also given by Rangaswami Naidu. It was further found that apart from the newspaper “Navva India” dated 12.05.1955, no other document was filed in the proceedings. The court found there is absolutely no reason to conclude that there was any division between the brothers before Rangaswami Naidu died. It is further stated that it is not in dispute that the publication stated to have been effected by Rangaswami Naidu, is on the basis of the previous partition between him and his brother in 1932 and inasmuch as the courts have concurrently held that there was no prior partition and in absence of any proof of separation by Rangaswami Naidu with his brother before his death, the finding of the first appellate court, was described as baseless. It was found that it was doubtful whether Rangaswami Naidu had any right to make a Will. The original Will was not produced. The plaintiff (the plaintiff in OS No.89 of 1983) did not take any steps to produce the Will. None was examined though the registration book from the Sub-Registrar was summoned and marked as XI. The Magistrate in Section 145 proceedings did not discuss the Will and the appellant-plaintiff in OS No. 89 of 1983 placed sole reliance on the order of the Executive Magistrate. It is further noticed that the Will was presented for registration as per the endorsement at the residence of Ammani Ammal whereas in B7 deposition of the attesting witness, the registration took place at the home of the deceased. In the absence of the original Will and non-compliance with the requirement of Section 68 and 69 of the Evidence Act, the court found that the Will was not proved. Registration of the Will does not dispense with the proof of the Will. It agreed with the findings of the trial court in this regard. The Executor is stated to have died in 1990 but no steps were taken to produce the Will during that time. It was not known why the plaintiff did not take steps to summon the records of proceedings under Section 145. R. Krishnammal acquired right under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act on the basis of the compromise. The rights of R. Krishnammal opened on 01.06.1955 when her husband died. R. Krishnammal had right to maintenance which was an existing right. The High Court distinguished the judgment of this Court in Sadhu Singh vs. Gurd.wa.ra. Sahib Narike and Others, (2006) 8 SCC 75. By virtue of that right under Section 14(1) she had entered into the compromise in OS No. 71 of 1958 and this was entirely recognised by the appellants. The appeals were allowed and the decree of the trial court was restored.

CONTENTIONS OF PARTIES

THE DEBATE IN THE COURT AND THE WRITTEN SUBMISSIONS

34. We have heard the learned counsel appearing for the parties. We heard Shri C.A. Sundaram, learned Senior Counsel who led the arguments on behalf of the appellants. We heard Mrs. Mohana and Shri V. Giri, learned Senior Counsels also, on behalf of the appellants. We further heard Shri Mohan Parasaran, Shri S. Guru Krishnakumar, Mrs. Chitra Sampath, and Shri V. Raghavachari, learned Senior Counsel, on behalf of the respondents. This is besides noting the submission of Shri S. Nagamuthu, learned senior counsel on behalf of some of the alienees from defendant No. 1 in OS 649/ 1985.

35. The appellants were led by Shri. C.A. Sundaram, learned senior counsel. He contended that the High Court had in the impugned judgment transgressed the limits under Section 100 of the CPC and re-appreciated the findings based on facts which was impermissible. He no doubt also does not invite us to find that there was an oral partition in the year 1932 but he contended that before Rangaswami Naidu died on 01.06.1955 by virtue of issuing B1 paper advertisement, the requirement in law for bringing about a division in the status of the Hindu Undivided Family was achieved. He took us to the terms of B1 and submitted that there is an unequivocal declaration of Rangaswami Naidu being separated. Response by his brother by communication dated 11.05.1955 purported to dispute the contents of B1. This fact was harnessed to contend that the requirement in law that not only a member who wishes a division in the joint family to be brought about, should communicate his intention but the communication should reach the other coparceners, was fulfilled. The elder brother did respond and till further, lending credence to the case set up by the appellant communication dated 16.05.1955 was issued by Rangaswami Naidu reiterating his stand manifested in Exhibit B1. It is not the law, learned senior counsel pointed out, that there must be any reason at all for a member of the Hindu Undivided Family to severe its connection with the family and to withdraw as it were from the undivided status. All that is required is an unequivocal declaration which is communicated and the same was achieved issuing in Bl. He would further submit that the Will was indeed genuine and free from taint or suspicious circumstances, which at any rate was found by the first appellate court which is the final court on facts. Rangaswami Naidu was indeed fond of his sisters. He did not have any issues. It is only natural and probable that therefore finding that death was not too far away he wanted to provide for both – his wife in the form of life estate and also to bequeath the absolute right in the 4 legatees (appellants before us) and he has drawn from each of the 4 branches of his sisters. The evidence given by the attesting witness in Section 145 proceedings fulfilled the requirement of Section 69 of the Evidence Act, as was correctly found by the first appellate court. In regard to the discrepancy in the date of Exhibit Bl, viz., that it is shown in the Appendix to the trial court judgment as being dated 12.05.1955 it is only a mistake and the date is actually 10.05.1955. In regard to the requirement to be fulfilled to bring about a division in joint family he relied on the following judgments:

1. Krishnabai Bhritar Ganpatrao Deshmukh vs. Appasaheb Tuljaramarao Nimbalkar and Ors.; (1979) 4 SCC 60

2. Addagada Raghavamma and Ors. vs. Addagada Chenchamma and Ors., AIR 1964 SC 136

3. Adiyalath Katheesumma and Ors. vs. Adiyalath Beechu and Ors.; AIR 1951 MAD 561

The appellants also relied upon B2 order passed in the proceedings under Section 145 CrPC to show that Rangaswami Naidu declared his divided status vide communication dated 10.05.1955. Another contention addressed is that even the execution of the Will amounted to declaration of status. Reliance is placed on Addagada Raghavamma case (supra) and Bhagwan Krishan Gupta vs. Praabha Gupta & Ors, (2009) 11 SCC 33. The execution of the Will shows that Rangaswami Naidu was in control of specific properties. Evidence of R. Krishnammal and the executor in the will in 145 proceedings establishes that testator was capable of dealing with the properties and executing Will in respect of portion of his huge estate. Reliance is placed on the judgment of this Court reported in Jalaja Shedhti & Ors. vs. Lakshmi Shedhti & Ors., 1973(2)SCC773 , Hardeo Rai vs. Sakuntala Devi & Ors., (2008) 7 SCC 46 and Kalyani (Dead) by LRs vs. Narayanan & Ors., (1980) 2 SCR 1130. It is the submission of the appellant that Rangaswami Naidu was capable of identifying and disposing of properties in the Will. Rangaswami Naidu has purchased properties in his name with his money which was dealt with by him as his own portion. Partition by metes and bounds is not mandatory. The requirement of Section 69 of the Evidence Act stands fulfilled on perusing the deposition of one of the attesting witness in Section 145 proceedings. The signature of the testator was identified by PW1 himself. The original Will has been produced in Section 145 proceedings. R. Krishnammal has based her case on the will in 145 proceedings and in the subsequent suits, viz., OS No.71 of 1958 and OS No.36 of 1963. The respondents however admitted to a compromise though an issue was framed regarding the Will. We are reminded that the Will is a registered document and that registration is a solemn act. It is the contention of the appellants that the wording in the Will and the surrounding circumstances clearly show the intention of Rangaswami Naidu to be that he wanted some properties of his estate to go to his sisters’ sons with whom he was very affectionate. Our attention is drawn to the reasoning of this Court in K.S. Palanisami (Dead) through LRs & Ors. vs. Hindu Community in General and Citizens of Gobichettipalayam & Ors., (2017) 13 SCC 15. It is the further submission of the appellant that R. Krishnammal, the widow has only limited estate during her lifetime which does not blossom into absolute right under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act. It is contended that the primary relief sought by R. Krishnammal in OS No.71 of 1958 was itself based on the right under the Will. She never claimed under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act. She knew the intention of the testator and accepted it by her conduct. The property bequeathed to her was only limited estate with onerous condition that she has to maintain sisters etc. and on her death the property was to devolve upon her sisters’ sons. Considerable reliance was placed upon the judgment of this Court in Sadhu Singh’s case (supra) . Taking us through the Will the appellants contend that the testator has provided other properties for the maintenance of Krishnammal, and therefore, it could not be argued that the plaint schedule property which are included in the Will were given in lieu of her right to maintenance which should become absolute after passing of the Hindu Succession Act. Reliance is placed on the following judgments:

(1) Shivdev Kaur (Dead) by LRs & Others vs. R. S. Grewal, (2013) 4 SCC 636

(2) Sharad Subramanyan vs. Sovuxii Mazumdar & Ors., (2006) 8 SCC 91 and

(3) Gaddam Ramakri shnareddy & Ors. vs. Gaddam Rami Reddy & Ors., (2010) 9 SCC 602

36. As regards the finding of the High Court that the suit filed by the legatee is barred under Order II Rule 2, it is contended that though there is a vested right under Section 119 (1) of the Indian Succession Act in favour of the appellants (legatees) , the cause of action to sue in respect of the bequeathed property arose only after the death of R. Krishnammal. O.S. No.36 of 1963 was a protective action to deal with R. Krishnammal purporting to alienate certain properties. Plaintiffs-appellants in OS No. 36 of 1963 were not parties to the suit in 1958 and the compromise in OS No. 71 of 1958 will not bind the appellants. R. Krishnammal, the widow did not have any right to deal with the properties which were given to her by way of life estate. She could not have entered into compromise without including the appellants. The decree is described as void ab initio and therefore, there is no need to declare that decree or any transaction thereon as such. Still further it is contended that perusal of the plaint in OS No. 36 of 1963 would show that plaintiffs have reserved their rights in respect of the rest of the properties to initiate separate action. The respondents have agreed for a declaration that Krishnammal had only a life estate and they are therefore estopped from contending that R. Krishnammal had absolute right. The cause of action arose only after 1977 on the death of R. Krishnammal. Reliance is placed on judgments of this Court in Bay Berry Apartments Pvt. Ltd. & Ors. Shobha & Ors., (2OO6) 13 SCC737 and Usha Subarao vs. B.E. Vishveswariah, (1996) 5 SCC 201. It is contended that Krishnammal did not have any right to give away the properties which was not for any legal necessity or family necessity. The transaction itself has been challenged as fraudulent and collusive in OS No.89 of 1983 and an issue was also framed. A contention is also taken that the compromise decree was not registered and therefore could not convey any title to the respondents. It is also submitted that the challenge made to the will in the year 1982 is barred by limitation. It is further contended that respondents are estopped from challenging the validity of the will in the light of admitting the existence of the Will and compromising the suits OS No. 71 of 1958 and OS No. 36 of 1963. The High Court erred in decreeing OS No.649 of 1985 without declaring earlier compromise decree between the same parties in OS No.71 of 1958 and OS No. 36 of 1963 as null and void. Any such declaration would be barred by limitation in the year 1982. Under the decree in OS No.36 of 1963 R. Krishnammal had only the life estate and Section 14(2) would apply. The right to the property by survivorship which was set up by the respondents was negatived by the trial court and no appeal was carried against the same. It is also the submission of the appellants that even on the death of Krishnammal on the basis that she had acquired absolute right under Section 14(1), the brothers and sisters’ sons were equally entitled to l/8th share in the entire 50 per cent of the property which fell to the share of Rangaswami Naidu.

37. We also heard Shri V. Giri, learned senior counsel for the appellants. Shri Nagamuthu, learned senior counsel canvassed contentions for the transferees from the 1st defendant in OS No. 89 of 1983 and complained that their contentions has not been considered and accepted.

38. We notice the following submissions by Mrs. V. Mohana, learned Senior Counsel on behalf of the appellants. There are sufficient pleadings in regard to the division of status. The newspaper in “Navva India” dated 10.05.1955 has never been disputed. She drew our attention to the evidence of the Executor in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC. The declaration was communicated. Rangaswami Naidu had the capacity to bequeath the properties. The brothers were dealing with the properties separately. In this regard, reliance is placed upon judgments of this Court in Hardeo Rai vs. Sakuntala Devi and others, (2008) 7 SCC 46. It is not necessary to prove partition by metes and bounds. The original Will was produced before the Magistrate in proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC. The Will is a registered document. The Will has been proved under Section 33 of the Evidence Act. The Magistrate Court is a Court. Reliance is placed on Krishnayya Surya Rao Bahadur Garu and others (Defendants) vs. Venkata Kumara Mahitathi Surya Rao Bahadur Garu, AIR 1933 PC 202. The earlier proceedings in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 is not binding upon the appellants. R. Krishnammal did not have the right to deal with the properties. The Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 was void. Appellants have never abandoned their rights. Principle of Order II Rule 2 of the CPC will not apply. Though the appellants had vested rights they could not have filed the case for getting possession till the death of R. Krishnammal. As per the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, rest of the properties were in the control of the plaintiffs. Therefore, they have reserved their right in O.S. No. 36 of 1963. The issue of Order II Rule 2 of the CPC was never argued nor any finding was given by the High Court. In the Suit for Partition, there is a prayer for possession. Anyways, the partition could be effected only when the final Decree Proceedings are over. The question of limitation was never agitated by the respondents, and at any rate, the period begins to run only in the year 1977. The Will is not in lieu of maintenance. The case falls under Section 14(2) of the Hindu Succession Act. Attempt has been made to distinguish decision of this Court in Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambar Gopal Sulakhe and others (supra). Shri Om Prakash, learned Senior Counsel in his written submission in Civil Appeal Nos. 1027 to 1032 of 2013, would contend, inter alia,, thatdivision and severance of the joint family stood proved. He lays store by the judgments of this court in Addagada Raghavamma and another vs. Addagada Chenchamma and another, AIR 1964 SC 136, Janki Narayan Bhoir vs. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, (2003) 2 SCC 91 and Hardeo Rai (supra) . The Will is covered under Section 63 of the Evidence Act and Section 68 of the Indian succession Act. The right in the joint family properties, devolving by survivorship, is negatived by the all the courts below and there is no appeal against such finding and there is no cross appeal.

CIVIL APPEAL NO. 1039-1044 OF 2013

In the Written Submission, it is sought to be contended that the challenge to the Will made by the plaintiffs (in O.S. No. 649 of 1985) in the year 1982 is barred by limitation. They are estopped in view of the compromise in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963. Without declaring Compromise Decrees, in the earlier two cases null and void, O.S. No. 649 of 1985 could not have been decreed. Such a relief is barred by limitation in the year 1982. Section 14 (1) of the Hindu Succession Act does not apply in view of the Compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963. The case based on survivorship was rejected by the Trial Court and, against the same, no appeal was filed by the plaintiffs. If the finding under Section 14(1) is confirmed, then, on the death of R. Krishnammal, by operation of law, the brother’s and sister’s son are equally entitled to l/8th share in the entire 50 per cent of the property which fell to the share of V. Rangaswami Naidu. Since, the plaintiffs had knowledge of the Will in the Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings, they were not entitled to challenge the Will in 1982.

39. In C.A.No.1045-1050 of 2013, the appellants are among defendants 13 to 34 in OS No. 89 of 1983. They are also defendants in the other suit (O.S. No. 649 of 1985) . It is their contention that they purchased 7 acres and 4 cents from A. Alagiriswami who is defendant No.1 in OS No.89 of 1983 and also the first defendant in OS No.649 of 1985. The said purchase was prior to the filing of the suit and after the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came into force. After referring to Section 14(1) , it is contended that the right given to R. Krishnammal for a lifetime became her exclusive right after the said Act came into force. After referring to Section 14(2) , it is pointed out that even according to Lakshmiah Naidu on their contention that the will is not genuine and there was no partition, there would not be any restriction under Section 14(2) for having absolute right by R. Krishnammal under Section 14(1). Referring to the Compromise Decree in OS No. 71 of 1958, it is stated that when there was no objection by the sons and grandsons of Lakshmiah Naidu now they cannot raise dispute about partition in 1932 and the execution of the will. Upon the death of Rangaswami Naidu in 1955 and R. Krishnammal on 30.4.1977 under oral partition between the family of the sister of Rangaswami Naidu, the property purchased by the appellants came into possession of A. Alagiriswami from whom they purchased. None of the parties till date challenged their sale deed and the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu filed O.S. No.649 of 1985, after 3 years of sale without even challenging the sale. Interference by the High Court with the findings is complained against.

40. Mr. Guru Krishnakumar, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the branch representing Lakshmiah Naidu submitted that the declaration B1 is shrouded in serious doubt. The discrepancy in the date viz., that it is dated 12.05.1955 and not 10.05.1955 looms large. Even while accepting the document before this Court, the date of B1 was conspicuously left out. The cross examination of PW1 and the reliance placed on the same is misplaced. Secondly, it is further contended that B1 is an unsigned document. No witness has deposed that the testator arranged for its publication. Further, it is contended that the declaration seeks to reaffirm the alleged partition of the year 1932 which partition has not been believed by three courts. B1 could not be believed independent of the alleged partition. Once the alleged partition was disbelieved B1 would have no legs to stand on. It is contended that the words relied upon by the appellants is in past continuous, insofar as it says “I also hereby make a declaration of my divided and separate status”, it was not to be from that date that the severance was to take effect. The findings of the first appellate court are attacked as being perverse for the reason that response to B1 and the rejoinder to the same which were marked as B43 and B44 in the proceedings under Section 145 were not exhibited in the present proceedings. B2 order does not reveal any findings on the same. It is further contended that partition is used in a narrow and wide sense. B1 even if relied upon would only result in separation of status but not actual partition by metes and bounds. Reliance is placed in Addagada Raghavamma vs. Addagada Chenchamma, AIR 1964 SC 136. The position at law is pointed out to be that the members of the undivided family even after a unilateral communication of severance of status must agree to a particular portion of the property being earmarked to a member. Reliance is placed on the judgment of this Court in Nanni Bai & Ors. vs. Gita Bai Rama Gunge, 1959 SCR 479 and Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambar Gopal Sulakhe & Ors.(supra) besides Kalyani (Dead) by LRs v. Narayanan and Others (supra) . It is pointed out that in Addagada Raghavamma case (supra), this Court did not consider the specific issue as to whether specific items of property could be unilaterally willed without the consent of the other coparceners or without partition by metes and bounds. The non-production of the original will is made a ground of attack. The finding of the trial court that the original will was produced in Section 145 proceeding is also pointed out to be the product of error. No steps were taken to produce the Will. The reliance placed on B7 deposition which is the deposition in proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC is impugned as being not binding as the proceedings under Section 145 could not be the forum for establishing the Will. Adjudication under the said provision could not be used as conclusive evidence to prove the Will in view of Section 41 of the Evidence Act. Reference is also made to Section 42 of the Evidence Act. It was further contended that the ingredients of Section 69 of the Evidence Act have not been met. It is pointed out that without conditions of Section 69 being not met for the purposes of Section 145 CrPC, the same evidence could not be used to rely upon for the purpose of Section 68 of the Evidence Act. Further it is contended that the evidence which did not fulfill the requirements of Section 68 could not be used to prove the Will under Section 69 of the Evidence Act. Even otherwise, it is contended B7 falls short of the requirement when there is no evidence to prove the signature of the testator, the original Will not having been produced. The exercise should not be undertaken as DW1 does not even know the signature of the testator. It is pointed out that suspicious circumstances surrounding the Will has not been explained. The argument that Will could be taken as a declaration of the severance of status is disputed. It is pointed out that the Will was communicated only with the proceedings under Section 145 which was after the death of the Rangaswami Naidu on 01.06.1955 on which date the partition had opened under the Mitakshra Law. It is also contended that the Section 33 of the Evidence Act does not apply. This is for the reason that under the explanation to Section 33 it would apply where a person claims under the party in the other proceedings. It is contended that the appellant (the plaintiff in OS No.89 of 1983 apparently) has not claimed under Krishnammal. It is further contended that Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act would apply.

41. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the respondent-Shri Raghavachari, contended as follows:

There was no partition. Paper publication dated 12.05.1955 spoke of an earlier division. The unilateral declaration is unacceptable. Suspicious circumstances include testator being bed ridden being in his last days as he was suffering from the cancer of the food pipe and was being fed by a tube and not being conscious are referred to. The question of letting in secondary evidence did not arise. The alleged Will contains inked portion and interlineations. It is further contended that OS No. 71 of 1958 was filed by the widow R. Krishnammal for partition of the joint family properties in which suit she had enlisted all 93 items of the joint family properties and claimed half share. The suit was compromised and she accepted 16 items and confirmed rights to 77 items in favour of the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu. R. Alagiriswami and V. Kalyanaswami (among the appellants before us) filed OS No.36 of 1963 and the children of Lakshmiah Naidu were also made parties. The right of R. Krishnammal to enter into a compromise in OS No.71 of 1958 was challenged as according to them she had only a life interest. R. Krishnammal, the defendant contended that she had absolute right under Section 14(1) and hence the authority to enter into compromise. Entering into a compromise in OS No. 36 of 1963 by taking two items out of 16 items after the lifetime of R. Krishnammal meant that the plaintiffs in OS No.36 of 1963 accepted the superior rights of R. Krishnammal and they gave up their claim and accepted the sale to third parties effected by R.Krishnammal of 5 items. Reference is also made to OS No. 732 of 1981 filed by the plaintiff also in OS No.36 of 1963. In the said suit plaintiffs have sought to divide the two items which they secured in OS No.36 of 1963. Our attention is drawn to the pleading in OS No.732 of 1981 to the effect that the properties belong to one R. Krishnammal which was allotted to her share in OS No.71 of 1958 and the said properties were in her possession till her death. In other words, it is pointed out that right was not set up under the will. The right was abandoned in 191A and which abandonment was affirmed in 1981 thus attracting the principles of estoppel, acquiescence and waiver. The contention is also taken that OS No. 89 of 1983 is hopelessly barred by limitation even proceeding on the basis that there is a Will and that will is true, Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act would apply.

42. Shri Mohan Parasaran, Senior Advocate would submit inter alia that there is no pleading for the case of severance. The Will was not proved in accordance with law. The proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC were summary in nature and not inter-parties. The subject matter was possession. Therefore, the evidence adduced in the said proceedings should not be used. The right available to Krishnammal was under Section 14(1). The bar under Order II Rule 2 applied.

43. Smt. Chithra Sampath, learned senior counsel appearing for some of the respondents contended that plaint schedule property was in the possession of the respondents (the children of Lakshmiah Naidu) right from the time of proceeding under Section 145. While this was the position yet there is no prayer for recovery of possession in OS 89 of 1983. Any such relief would be barred by limitation. Relying on the judgment of this Court in (2007) 12 SCC 695, it is contended that since there is no pleading regarding division of status is O.S. No. 89 of 1983 and in the Written Statement in O.S. No. 649 of 1985, in spite of the specific plea of the respondents in O.S. 649 of 1985 that there was no division, no amount of evidence can be looked into. There is no issue framed regarding division. The Appellate Court has relied on documents not filed in these proceedings. The content of the same was not known to the parties as they were not discussed and findings rendered. [This is with reference to the Order passed, Exhibit-B2]. The proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC are summary in nature and do not bind the Civil Court. There is no communication to bring about a division of status prior to the death. Reliance is placed on Madhusudan Das v. Narayanibai (Deceased) by Lrs. and others, (1983) 1 SCC 35. It is not a case where the Will is lost. Relying on Benga Behera and another vs. Braja Kishore Nanda and others, (2007) 9 SCC 728 it is contended that only after pleading and proving loss of original Will beyond reasonable doubt, that secondary evidence could be adduced. In regard to reliance placed on B7, our attention is drawn to the Judgment of this Court in Sashi Jena and others vs. Khadal Swain and another, (2004) 4 SCC 236. It is contended that the issue involved in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC were related to possession and the issue of Will by Rangaswami was not considered, and therefore, two conditions in Section 33 of the Evidence Act are not met. The other condition is obviously the first condition in the proviso on the basis that that the plaintiff in O.S. No. 89 of 1983 is not tracing his title through the parties in Section 145 proceedings. Suspicious circumstances, including even refusal by the Testator as reflected in XI, to prefixing his thumb impression pointing to his mental condition, are pointed out. Incorrect statements in the Will are enlisted to impugn the Will. The case falls under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act. Conduct of the plaintiff in O.S. No. 89 of 1983 in filing O.S. No. 732 of 1981, on the basis it was filed, renders it a fit case for applying the principle in Krishna Beharilal vs. Gulabchand, (1971) 1 SCC 837 and S. Shanmugam Pillai and others vs. K. Shanmugam Pillai and others, (1973) 2 SCC 312. This is besides pointing out the effect of filing O.S. No. 1936 of 1963 and endorsement in the Plaint that no relief was claimed against the other defendants, thus, making it a case where no right was reserved in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 to agitate their rights in respect of other properties in the Will.

THE PROPERTY AT STAKE

44. The property in dispute, in both the Suits, is the same. In the Will dated 10.05.1955, there were sixteen items. In O.S. No. 71 of 1958, R. Krishnammal was conferred with absolute rights in respect of seven items. The property involved in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 also related to the seven items, which figured in compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, wherein R. Krishnammal was conferred absolute rights. O.S. No. 632 of 1981 relates to items Nos. 5 and 6, in O.S. No. 36 of 1963. The items which are scheduled in the present Suits are the items covered by the Will dated 10.05.1955 other than the seven items, out of which, four were alienated and one was acquired. As far as O.S. No. 71 of 1958, filed by R. Krishnammal, is concerned, since she had an alternate relief claiming partition, it encompassed the entire property belonging to the coparcenary consisting of 93 items.

45. The extent of property involved in the cases before us is a little over 36 acres.

THE EFFECT OF ORDER II RULE 2 OF THE CPC

46. The contention raised by the respondents is, inter alia, that O.S. No. 89 of 1983 is barred by Order II Rule 2 of The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the CPC, for short) CPC. This is for the reason that when two out of the appellants have instituted O.S. No. 36 of 1963, they have scheduled only seven items in the said Suit. It was open to the appellants to claim the relief which they have claimed in the present Suit. Having not sued in respect of the items of properties other than the items scheduled in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, they are barred under Order II Rule 2 of the CPC. This is countered by the appellants by pointing out two aspects. Firstly, it is contended that under the Will, though they had vested right, O.S. No. 36 of 1963 had to be instituted when R. Krishnammal-the widow of Rangaswami Naidu had made preparations for alienating the items scheduled in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 and which were covered by the Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. Secondly, it is pointed out by the appellants that under the Will, R. Krishnammal-the Widow had a life estate in respect of the plaint scheduled properties. Consequently, as long as she was alive, a Suit of the nature, as is filed, viz., O.S. No. 89 of 1983, could not be filed, when under the Will, R. Krishnammal had the right. It is only upon her death that under the Will, a suit of the nature filed by them, could have been filed. R. Krishnammal died only in 1977. In order that provisions of Order II Rule 2 of the CPC apply, there must be identity of cause of action. Thus, on the one hand, while it was open to the appellants to institute a protective action, as was done by filing O.S. No. 36 of 1963, in respect of the properties scheduled threin. On the basis of the cause of action projected in the said Suit, it would certainly not be a bar to the prosecution of the present Suit.

47. Order II Rule 2 of the CPC has been a subject matter of a large number of decisions of this Court. Order II Rule 2 (2) of the CPC postulates a situation where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of any portion of his claim or intentionally relinquishes any portion of his claim. Then, he is debarred from suing in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished. A plaintiff entitled to more than one relief arising from the same cause of action, can do two things. He may sue in respect of all the reliefs arising from the same cause of action in the same suit. He may, if he omits to sue for one or more of the reliefs open to him under the same cause of action, seek leave of the court to sue for all such reliefs, and if the court grants such leave, then, he may institute a suit, though based on the same cause of action in the earlier suit, in a fresh suit. The effect of not seeking the leave of the court, however, in regard to any of the reliefs, which it was open to him to sue for on the same cause of action, is that, he is barred from suing for any other reliefs so omitted. The difference between Order II Rule 2(2) and Order II Rule 2(3) of the CPC may be noticed. The law contemplates a distinction between a case where a claim arising out of the cause of action is either intentionally relinquished or omitted to be sued upon. Such a claim cannot be the subject matter of a fresh suit. However, when more than one reliefs are available stemming from the same cause of action, then, seeking further reliefs than sought in the first suit, except where leave is obtained, would be barred. However, present the grant of leave by the court, his subsequent suit seeking the reliefs which were originally not sought but for which leave is granted, is permissible. The principle of this provision is actually captured in Order II Rule 2 (1) of the CPC which is that every suit is to include the whole of the claim which arises out of the cause of action and which the plaintiff is entitled to make. It further declares that it is open to a plaintiff to omit any portion of the claim. However, the consequences of the same are declared in Order II Rule 2 (2) of the CPC. We notice that similar views have been expressed in the decision of this Court in Virgo Industries (Eng.) (P) Ltd. vs. Venturetech Solutions (P) Ltd. (2013)1 SCC 625. In paragraph 9, it was held as follows:

“9. Order 2 Rule 1 requires every suit to include the whole of the claim to which the plaintiff is entitled in respect of any particular cause of action. However, the plaintiff has an option to relinquish any part of his claim if he chooses to do so. Order 2 Rule 2 contemplates a situation where a plaintiff omits to sue or intentionally relinquishes any portion of the claim which he is entitled to make. If the plaintiff so acts, Order 2 Rule 2 CPC makes it clear that he shall not, afterwards, sue for the part or portion of the claim that has been omitted or relinquished. It must be noticed that Order 2 Rule 2(2) does not contemplate omission or relinquishment of any portion of the plaintiff’ s claim with the leave of the court so as to entitle him to come back later to seek what has been omitted or relinquished. Such leave of the court is contemplated by Order 2 Rule 2(3) in situations where a plaintiff being entitled to more than one relief on a particular cause of action, omits to sue for all such reliefs. In such a situation, the plaintiff is precluded from bringing a subsequent suit to claim the relief earlier omitted except in a situation where leave of the court had been obtained. It is, therefore, clear from a conjoint reading of the provisions of Order 2 Rules 2(2) and (3) CPC that the aforesaid two sub-rules of Order 2 Rule 2 contemplate two different situations, viz. , where a plaintiff omits or relinquishes a part of a claim which he is entitled to make and, secondly, where the plaintiff omits or relinquishes one out of the several reliefs that he could have claimed in the suit. It is only in the latter situations where the plaintiff can file a subsequent suit seeking the relief omitted in the earlier suit proved that at the time of omission to claim the particular relief he had obtained leave of the court in the first suit.”

48. In this case, it is true that when O.S. No. 36 of 1963 was instituted, the earlier Suit brought by R. Krishnammal, viz., O.S. No. 71 of 1958, had culminated in a compromise Decree. A perusal of the plaint itself would show that the plaintiffs in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 have adverted to the compromise in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. They have averred in paragraph 7 of the plaint that under the compromise, R. Krishnammal was given the property scheduled in the said Suit (Suit No. O.S. No. 36 of 1963) in lieu of the properties comprised in the Will and some cash. The rest of the properties comprised in the Will were given-up by her in favour of the respondents (the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu) it is averred. Thereafter, it is averred that the defendants claim, i.e., R. Krishnammal claimed absolute title to the properties scheduled in the plaint and which was unsustainable both in law and facts. It is contended further that the entire compromise Decree, more especially, conferring the absolute title to the suit properties therein in R. Krishnammal, was not valid and binding on the two plaintiffs and Defendants 3 and 4, who are the appellants before us. It is further averred that the appellants have vested rights in the properties. They were not impleaded in the suit (apparently, O.S. No. 71 of 1958). It was averred that R. Krishnammal did not represent the interest of the appellants. In paragraph-8 of the Plaint, it is averred that R. Krishnammal could not enlarge her rights by any compromise to which the plaint items were, only some items of the properties comprised in the Will and R. Krishnammal would, in law, be entitled to and could claim only the same interest, i.e., a life estate that she had under the Will. Thereafter, there is reference to a Notice dated 05.10.1959 to R. Krishnammal that she had only a life estate and to desist from alienating them. R. Krishnammal is alleged to have sent a reply containing untenable allegations. It is averred that she claimed, inter alia, that the appellants would not be entitled to claim anything under the Will and she was entitled to deal with the properties in any manner she liked. It is further averred that R. Krishnammal was then attempting to create nominal documents in respect of the suit properties to defeat the rights of the appellants. Paragraph-11 of the Plaint being significant, may be noticed:

“11. The Will of R.V. Rangaswami Naidu comprised other properties also other than those described herein which under the compromise decree have been given by the 1st defendant to her husband’s brother’s sons. The plaintiffs reserve their rights to respect of those properties to a separate action.”

49. It is accordingly that O.S. No. 36 of 1963 was filed seeking a declaration that R. Krishnammal had only a life estate without any powers of alienation and the appellants have a vested remainder in the said properties under the Will. The word ‘said’ obviously refers to the items scheduled in OS No.36 of 1963.

50. The Suit (O.S. No. 89 of 1983) is fundamentally premised on the death of R. Krishnammal in 1977 and the blossoming of the full rights of the appellants under the Will. In other words, R. Krishnammal having a life estate under the Will was alive when O.S. No. 36 of 1963 was filed. The absolute right under the Will, in favour of the appellants, dawned only with the death of the life estate holder. In this context, no doubt, we must clarify one aspect. Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 (hereinafter referred to as the “Indian Succession Act’, for short) deals with the date of vesting of legacy when, inter alia, possession is postponed. The provision with the relevant illustration reads as follows:

“119. Date of vesting of legacy when payment or possession postponed. – Where by the terms of a bequest the legatee is not entitled to immediate possession of the thing bequeathed, a right to receive it at the proper time shall, unless a contrary intention appears by the Will, become vested in the legatee on the testator’s death, and shall pass to the legatee’s representatives if he dies before that time and without having received the legacy, and in such cases the legacy is from the testator’s death said to be vested in interest.

Explanation. – An intention that a legacy to any person shall not become vested in interest in him is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the payment or possession of the thing bequeathed is postponed, or whereby a prior interest therein is bequeathed to some other person, or whereby the income arising from the fund bequeathed is directed to be accumulated until the time of payment arrives, or from a provision that, if a particular event shall happen, the legacy shall go over to another person.

Illustrations:

(i) xxx xxx

(ii) xxx xxx

(iii) A fund is bequeathed to A for life, and after his death to B. On the testator’s death the legacy to B becomes vested in interest in B.

xxx xxx xxx xxx”

51. It is also apposite that we notice Section 19 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the TP Act’ , for short) . Section 19 deals with vested interest. It reads as follows:

“19. Vested interest. – Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person without specifying the time when it is to take effect, or in terms specifying that it is to take effect forthwith or on the happening of an event which must happen, such interest is vested, unless a contrary intention appears from the terms of the transfer. A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.

Explanation. – An intention that an interest shall not be vested is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the enjoyment thereof is postponed, or whereby a prior interest in the same property is given or reserved to some other person, or whereby income arising from the property is directed to be accumulated until the time of enjoyment arrives, or from a provision that if a particular event shall happen the interest shall pass to another person.”

52. Vested interest is different from the contingent interest. The two have vastly different consequences. The death of R. Krishnammal being a certain event, the interest of the remainder men is a vested interest. The commonality between Section 19 of the TP Act and Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act, and which is apposite to the facts of this case, is as follows:

When under the Will, a life estate was created in favour of R. Krishnammal with an absolute remainder in favour of the appellants, the legacy in favour of the appellants became vested from the time of death of the testator. The possession and the enjoyment of the property, however, under the Will, was the domain of the life estate holder, viz. , R. Krishnammal as long as she was alive. She, however, had no right to enlarge the boundaries of her right under the Will. This is, no doubt, subject to the impact of supervening Legislation which will be discussed later. By her unilateral act or by even joining together with the third party, it would not be open to life estate holder to defeat the rights of the remainder men. The significance of a case being covered under Section 119 Illustration (III) , of the Indian Succession Act, is that with the death of the Testator, the right in the property becomes vested with the remainder men, from the time of death of the Testator. In other words, upon the death of the legatee under the Will, in whom the absolute right is vested after the transient possession and enjoyment of the life estate holder, a heritable right, which, in fact, arose at the time of the death of the testator, would confer legal rights upon the heirs of the absolute owner under the Will when succession to his estate opens, should he not wish to leave a Will behind. Though the right is vested in the property, the enjoyment of the property with the absoluteness of a full owner under the Will could be done by the appellants only after the death of R. Krishnammal. Having thrown light upon the words ‘absolute rights’ in the context of Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, it is this right which was sought to be made subject matter of a Decree for declaration and partition. It is clear that in the year 1963 or till the death of R. Krishnammal, the rights as sought to be enforced, did not inhere with the appellants as explained. They could not have sought a partition of the plaint scheduled properties while R. Krishnammal was alive.

53. We listen to the words of this Court again in Virgo Industries (Eng.) Private Limited vs. Venturetech Solutions Private Limited, (2013) 1 SCC 625 found in paragraph-11 of the judgment:

“11. The cardinal requirement for application of the provisions contained in Order 2 Rules 2(2) and (3), therefore, is that the cause of action in the later suit must be the same as in the first suit. …”

54. Thus, be it the omission or intentional relinquishment of a claim arising out of a cause of action under Order 2 Rule 2(2) or not seeking a relief under Order 2 Rule 2 (3), the fatal consequences they pose, will arise only if the cause of action is the same. Though we are not oblivious to the fact that the plaintiffs in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 could have sought a declaration about the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, qua all the properties covered under the Will, we would think that, in the facts of this case, the cause of Action in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 and the present Suit (O.S. No. 1989 of 1983) are clearly distinct, having regard to what we have discussed and having regard to the factum of the date of the death of R. Krishnammal. It is significant to note that the cause of action in OS No. 36 of 1963 was the threat of alienation of the items scheduled therein. We would perceive O.S. No. 36 of 1963 more as a protective action by persons who had vested interest in the property under Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Indian Succession Act’, for short). We must also not be unmindful of the principle that cause of action is not to be confused with the relief which is sought. It has more to do with the basis for the relief which is sought. We are only reiterating in this regard, what the Privy Council has laid down, when it said “it refers to the media upon which the plaintiff asked the court to arrive at a conclusion in his favour” (See Mohammad Khalil Khan vs. Mahbub Ali Mian, AIR 1949 PC 78) .

THE IMPACT OF THE PROCCEDINGS AND THE DECREE PASSED IN O.S. NO. 1971 OF 1958 AND O.S. NO. 36 OF 1963 AND O.S NO. 732 OF 1981

ESTOPPEL, WAIVER, ACQUIESCENCE

55. O.S. No. 71 of 1958 was a Suit filed by R. Krishnammal. Defendants Nos. 1 to 4 were sons of Lakshmiah Naidu. The Fifth Defendant was the Executor of the Will. R. Krishnammal lay store by the Will executed by her late husband V. Rangaswami Naidu. In the alternate, she also claimed a Decree for Partition, virtually giving-up her right under the Will and on the basis that V. Rangaswami Naidu died intestate. The matter did not go to trial. It ended in a compromise. The substance of the compromise is, a few of the items mentioned in the Will, seven items were recognised as absolute properties of R. Krishnammal even though, under the Will, she had only a limited right over those items. R. Krishnammal, for her part, under the compromise Decree gave-up her rights in respect of the rest of the properties. We notice the argument of V. Raghavachari, learned Senior Counsel for the respondents, that there were ninety-three items which would have been impacted if a Partition Decree, as sought by R. Krishnammal, had been passed. In other words, there was a larger body of properties, apparently which belonged to the joint family of the V. Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu. The properties covered by the Will were only a much smaller part of the larger body of property, which belonged to the joint family. There is evidence to suggest that as found by the First Appellate Court that R. Krishnammal may not have been in a position to demand her full rights as such and she was satisfied with what she could get. But what is far more relevant is, the appellants were not parties to the compromise. Appellants were not tracing their rights under R. Krishnammal. Appellants were given an absolute right under the Will executed by their uncle V. Rangaswami Naidu. The bequest in their favour created a vested interest within the meaning of Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925. Of course, the enjoyment and possession of the property was to await the death of R. Krishnammal under the Will. It is quite clear that R. Krishnammal could not have also enlarged the rights of the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu, once she accepted the Will, for she had only a life estate over the properties covered under the Will. The appellants were also not bound by her acts in entering into a compromise seeking to confer absolute rights qua those properties, which were subject matter of the Will, in respect of which, they had the right to be enjoyed after the death of R. Krishnammal.

56. O.S. No. 36 of 1963 came to be filed by two out of the appellants, who are Legatees under the Will. They sought a declaration to the effect that R. Krishnammal could not enlarge her right and she could not alienate the properties (the very seven items, which, under the compromise Decree of O.S. NO. 71 of 1958, were recognised as her absolute properties). It is true that the plaintiffs in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 did not choose to include the plaint schedule properties in the present Suit and seek a declaration qua them. There are two aspects to it, which we must bear in mind. Firstly, the cause of action for filing O.S. No. 36 of 1963 was alleged to be the apprehension that R. Krishnammal was about to alienate the seven items over which she acquired absolute rights under O.S. No. 71 of 1958 (In fact, it was alleged that one item was alienated). Secondly, we have already noticed paragraph-11 of the Plaint. Therein, the plaintiffs have revealed their mind to be that they intend to pursue their right qua other properties apparently which are the plaint schedule properties in O. S. No. 89 of 1983. We have already indicated that the bar of Order II Rule 2 of the CPC will not apply. There is some merit in the contention of the appellants that the Decree passed in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 did involve watering down the terms of the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. As on the date of the compromise in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, the position was that four, out of the seven items, had been alienated by R. Krishnammal, whereas, one property had been acquired by the Government. As regards Item Nos. 5 and 6 in the plaint schedule in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, the terms of the Will dated 10.05.1955, came to be reiterated. This is for the reason that in departure from the terms of the Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, under which R. Krishnammal was conferred with the absolute rights in respect of Item Nos. 5 and 6, in regard to the very same items, under the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, R. Krishnammal was only to enjoy the properties during her lifetime and without the power of alienation. In other words, the terms of the Will dated 10.05.1955 are seen reflected and reinforced by the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963. Both, in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963, there is no adjudication by the court. As to what is the expediency which led the parties to enter into the compromise Decree, may not be decisive of the legal rights of the parties which we are called upon to pronounce. The action of the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu, who had also joined as parties in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, and who were represented by the Counsel, may not obviate the need for proving the Will on the part of the appellants.

57. The further aspect to be noticed is that in the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, our attention is invited to the fact that the plaintiffs have stated that they are not seeking any relief against the other defendants which include the Lakshmiah branch. From this, it is sought to be contended that the interest of the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu, which stood secured under the compromise Decree of O.S. No. 71 of 1958, whereunder R. Krishnammal had given up her rights in regard to all properties other than the seven items over which she was conferred absolute rights, was left undisturbed and un impeached. This conduct is emphasised before us, to point out that it would constitute a bar by way of principles, including estoppel and acquiescence for the appellants in instituting O.S. No. 89 of 1983 in regard to the plaint schedule properties over which R. Krishnammal had give-up all her rights in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. It is in this regard, we must bear in mind that even in the Plaint, in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, the properties, other than the seven items, were admittedly not the subject matter of the Suit. More importantly, what is stated in the compromise is that no relief is claimed against the other Defendants in the said Suit. It is equally true that by the passing of the Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, the interest of the Lakshmiah branch was not imperilled. This is for the reason that in regard to Item Nos. 5 and 6 in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, over which the rights of R. Krishnammal were limited to a life estate with a taboo against alienation bringing it in tune with the terms of the Will under the Compromise did not matter for the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu. This is for the reason that as far as they were concerned, they were already bound by the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 whereunder R. Krishnammal had been conferred absolute rights in regard to Item nos. 5 and 6, inter alia, and they had lost all their rights. Therefore, the arrangement inter se between the appellants and R. Krishnammal, qua those properties, was of no concern to them. What they were interested in was the rest of the properties over which they were given absolute rights under the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. The result is that on the one hand the terms of the Will came to be reiterated under the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 qua Item Nos. 5 and 6. The Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 was otherwise left untouched. We would, therefore, conclude that the passing of a Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, is a matter which is entirely between the appellants and R. Krishnammal. In fact, the Lakshmiah Naidu branch, though made parties to the compromise, were not actually parties to the Decree. They have not signed as parties to the compromise Decree. Therefore, neither the appellants nor the respondents can derive any advantage from either the filing of O.S. No. 36 of 1963 or the passing of the compromise Decree therein. The plaintiffs in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 have also filed O.S. No. 732 of 1981. The Lakshmiah branch (among the respondents in the appeals) were not parties. It was a Suit for partition of items 5 and 6 scheduled to O.S. No. 36 of 1963. It is obvious that they cannot rely upon principles of res judicata or constructive res judicata based on O.S. No.732 of 1981, being not parties to the said Suit. What, however, is sought to be urged, is that the premise, on the basis of which the Decree in O.S. No. 732 of 1981 was passed, is completely incongruous with the cause of action in the present Suit. In other words, it is pointed out that in O.S. No. 732 of 1981, the case set-up was R. Krishnammal had rights over the property and this was inconsistent with the case set-up in the present Suit. It was contended that the appellants were estopped from undertaking such a course of action. We could also deduce the following conduct. The cause of action in O.S. No. 732 of 1981 did involve drawing upon the rights secured (qua Item Nos. 5 and 6 in O.S. No. 36 of 1963)in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 whereunder the Lakshmiah branch acknowledged rights of R. Krishnammal who also gave-up her rights to properties which included the plaint schedule items in the case. Though, we are not oblivious to the dimensions projected, we would not think that Right to Property, if otherwise is established in favour of the appellants, it would be lost. It cannot be treated as a case of abandonment of rights qua the plaint schedule properties (See in this regard Sha Mulchand & Co. Ltd. (In Liquidation) , By Official Receiver, High Court, Madras vs. Jawahar Mills Limited, Salem, AIR 1953 SC 98 and Dr. Karan Singh vs. State of J&K and another, (2004) 5 SCC 698. The respondents who were not parties to O.S. No. 732 of 1981,cannot set-up a case of estoppel.

WHETHER THE WILL DATED 10.05.1955 HAS BEEN PROVED [Sections 33, 68 and 69 of the Evidence Act]

58. The Will in question is an unprivileged Will. The mode of making an unprivileged Will is provided in Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act. In order that a valid Will be made not only, it is necessary that the Testator must execute the document but also the execution must be attested by at least two witnesses. What is required is not ordinary witnessing of a document but attestation which is as is provided in Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act.

59. Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Evidence Act’ , for short) deals with proof of execution of a document required by the law to be attested. A perusal of the same makes it clear that in the case of a Will, being a document which is required to be attested by Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, if there is an attesting witness alive and subject to the process of the court and capable of giving evidence, then, the Will can be proved only if one of the attesting witness is called for proving its execution.

60. Section 69 of the Evidence Act, 1872, reads as follows:

“69. Proof where no attesting witness found. – If no such attesting witness can be found, or if the document purports to have been executed in the United Kingdom, it must be proved that the attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting, and that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person.”

61. Though the expression used is ‘if no such attesting witness can be found, inter alia, it bears the following interpretation’ . The word ‘such’ before ‘attesting witness’ is intended to refer to the attesting witness mentioned in Section 68 of the Evidence Act. As far as the expression ‘found’ is concerned, it would cover a wide variety of circumstances. It would cover a case of an incapacity to tender evidence on account of any physical illness. It would certainly embrace a situation where the attesting witnesses are dead. Should the attesting witness be insane, the word “found” is capable of comprehending such a situation as one where the attesting witness, though physically available, is incapable of performing the task of proving the attestation under Section 68 the Evidence Act, and therefore, it becomes a situation where he is not found.

62. In Babu Singh and others vs. Ram Sahai alias Ram Singh, (2008) 14 SCC 754 the Court laid down as follows in regard to Section 69:

“17. It would apply, inter alia, in a case where the attesting witness is either dead or out of the jurisdiction of the court or kept out of the way by the adverse party or cannot be traced despite diligent search. Only in that event, the will may be proved in the manner indicated in Section 69 i.e. by examining witnesses who were able to prove the handwriting of the testator or executant. The burden of proof then may be shifted to others.

18. Whereas, however, a will ordinarily must be proved keeping in view the provisions of Section 63 of the Succession Act and Section 68 of the Act, in the event the ingredients thereof, as noticed hereinbefore, are brought on record, strict proof of execution and attestation stands relaxed. However, signature and handwriting, as contemplated in Section 69, must be proved.” (Emphasis supplied)

63. Dealing with Section 69 of the Evidence Act, we notice the judgment of this Court in K. Laxmanan vs. Thekkayil Padmini and others, (2009) 1 SCC 354:

“32. Since both the attesting witnesses have not been examined, in terms of Section 69 of the Act it was incumbent upon the appellant to prove that the attestation of at least one attesting witness is in his handwriting and that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person. DW 3, who was an identifying witness also in Ext. B-2, specifically stated that he had not signed as an identifying witness in respect of Ext. B-2 and also that he did not know about the signature in Ext. B-2. Besides, considering the nature of the document which was a deed of gift and even assuming that no pleading is filed specifically denying the execution of the document by the executant and, therefore, there was no mandatory requirement and obligation to get an attesting witness examined but still the fact remains that the plaintiff never admitted the execution of the gift deed and, therefore, the same was required to be proved like any other document.”

64. In this case, there is no dispute that both the attesting witnessing were not alive at the relevant time. The questions, therefore, would then arise as follows:

a. Is it still the requirement of law when both the attesting witnesses are dead that:

under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, the attestation as required under Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, viz. , attestation by the two witnesses has to be proved? Or

Is it sufficient to prove that the attestation of at least one attesting witness is in his handwriting, which is the literal command of Section 69 of the Evidence Act apart from proving the latter limb?

b. The further question which would arise is whether exhibit B7, which is the copy of the evidence of the one of the attesting witnesses in the Will, in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC sufficiently fulfils the requirements under Section 33 of the Evidence Act?

65. We will first take-up the issue relating to the impact of Section 33 of the Evidence Act. It is not a matter which is gone into by the High Court. Section 33 of the Evidence Act reads as follows:

“33. Relevancy of certain evidence for proving, in subsequent proceeding, the truth of facts therein stated. – Evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding, or before any person authorized by law to take it, is relevant for the purpose of proving, in a subsequent judicial proceeding, or in a later stage of the same judicial proceeding, the truth of the facts which it states, when the witness is dead or cannot be found, or is incapable of giving evidence, or is kept out of the way by the adverse party, or if his presence cannot be obtained without an amount of delay or expense which, under the circumstances of the case, the Court considers unreasonable:

Provided – that the proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest; that the adverse party in the first proceeding had the right and opportunity to cross-examine; that the questions in issue were substantially the same in the first as in the second proceeding.

Explanation. – A criminal trial or inquiry shall be deemed to be a proceeding between the prosecutor and the accused within the meaning of this section.” (Emphasis supplied)

66. The contention of the respondents appears to be only that, in the proceeding under Section 145 of the CrPC, the tussle was between R. Krishnammal and the Executor of the Will who were styled as A Party Nos. 1 and 2 and the B Party, viz., the respondents. The present appellants were not parties. Therefore, the proceeding was not between the same. The other limb of the first proviso to Section 33, viz. , that in order that Section 33 of the Evidence Act applies, the proceeding is between their representatives in interest is not fulfilled. The contention seen raised is that the appellants, who are the remainder men under the Will, cannot be treated as representatives in interest of R. Krishnammal.

67. Further the nature of Section 145 proceedings is highlighted as not one attracting the 3rd proviso. The interpretation of the word ‘representative in interest’ has fallen for consideration before the Privy Council in the decision reported in Krishnayya Surya Rao Bahadur Garu and others (Defendants) vs. Venkata Kumara Mahitathi Surya Rao Bahadur Garu, AIR 1933 PC 202 wherein the Court referred to a large body of case law and after an exhaustive review, held as follows:

“20. Nothing would have been easier, had it been desired so to do, than to follow the English rule, or to require that the party to the first proceeding should be privy in estate with or the predecessor in title of the party to the second proceeding. Instead of using such well-known terms, a much more elastic phrase is employed, and one which is neither technical nor a term of art. The legislative authority was, it must be remembered, dealing with a country in which (amongst other institutions) the Hindu joint family involved representation of interest of a kind and degree and in circumstances unfamiliar to English law. In view of this fact, their Lordships cannot but surmise that the omission of strict English legal terminology and the employment of the less restricted phrase ‘representatives in interest’ was deliberate and intentional. It will be a question depending for its correct answer upon the circumstances of each case where the question arises, whether there was a party to the first proceeding who was a representative in interest of a party to the second proceeding within the wider meaning which their Lord- ‘ ships attribute to these words. Turning back to the first proviso, it requires, in their Lordships’ view, that the party to the first proceeding should have represented in interest the party to the second proceeding in relation to the question in issue in the first proceeding to which “the facts which the evidence states” were relevant. It covers not only cases of privity in estate and succession of title, but also cases where both the following conditions exist, viz. (1) the interest of the relevant party to the second proceeding in the subject-matter of the first proceeding is consistent with and not antagonistic to the interest therein of the relevant party to the first proceeding; and (2) the interest of both in the answer to be given to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding is identical. There may be other cases covered by the first proviso; but if both the above conditions are fulfilled, the relevant party to the first proceeding in fact represented in the first proceeding the relevant party to the second proceeding in regard to his interest in relation to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding, land may grammatically and truthfully be described as a representative in interest of the party to the second proceeding.” [Emphasis supplied]

68. The word ‘representative in interest’, in other words, is to be understood liberally and not confined to cases where there is privity of estate and succession of title. He is be such representative of the party in the later proceedings. Answering the two tests, which have been evolved in the facts of this case, the respondents cannot contend that the interest of the appellants was inconsistent with the interest of R. Krishnammal and in particular the executor of the Will. It was certainly not antagonistic to their interest. The Will was indeed set-up by R. Krishnammal and the executor. Therefore, it can be safely concluded that the interest of both persons comprised of A Party, which was the protection of the possession, was also in the interest of the appellants. It may be true that the appellants do not derive their title under R. Krishnammal. But the requirements under Section 33 of the Evidence Act are not to be confused with the ingredients to be fulfilled even in a case under Section 11 of the CPC. It cannot be contended that the interest of the appellants lay in answering the question posed in Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings against R. Krishnammal and the Executor in favour of the respondents, who were parties before the Magistrate. The case of the Will was explicitly set up as also the declaration dated 10.5.1955 and further developments. Therefore, the contention based on the third proviso also does not appeal to us. Also not only was there opportunity to cross examine to the B party, it was availed of. The applicability of Section 33 of the Evidence Act also does not depend upon the nature of the decision which is rendered in the earlier proceeding. We would think that on this basis, as Exhibit-B7 and even B13 (deposition by the Executor) indeed is evidence which was tendered in the previous proceeding before the Magistrate who was certainly authorised by law to take evidence, which is relevant for proving the truth of the facts contained therein under Section 33.

69. The further question is, as posed by us, whether despite the fact that both the attesting witnesses were dead, the matter to be proved under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, is the same as a matter to be proved under Section 68 of the Evidence Act. In other words, under Section 68 of the Evidence Act, in the case of a Will covered under Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, it is indispensable that at least one attesting witness must not only be examined to prove attestation by him but he must also prove the attestation by the other attesting witness [See 1995(6)SCC 213]. This Court has taken the view that while it is open to prove the will and the attestation by examining a single attesting witness, it is incumbent upon him to prove attestation not only by himself but also attestation by the other attesting witness. It is the contention of the respondents that under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, Exhibit-B7 falls short of the requirement of law that attestation of the execution by both the witnesses be proved. After taking us through Exhibit-B7, it was pointed out that it is clear that even in the said deposition, the witness has not deposed about the attestation by the other witness, viz., Dr. C.S. Ramaswamy Iyer. On the other hand, the contention of the appellants and which has found approval with the First Appellate Court, is that Section 69 of the Evidence Act only requires that the attestation of at least one attesting witness in his handwriting be proved. This is, of course apart from proving that the signature of the testator executing the document is in the handwriting of that person.

70. We are of the view that Section 69 of the Evidence Act manifests a departure from the requirement embodied in Section 68 of the Evidence Act. In the case of a Will, which is required to be executed in the mode provided in Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, when there is an attesting witness available, the Will is to be proved by examining him. He must not only prove that the attestation was done by him but he must also prove the attestation by the other attesting witness. This is, no doubt, subject to the situation which is contemplated in Section 71 of the Evidence Act which allows other evidence to be adduced in proof of the Will among other documents where the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the Will or the other document. In other words, the fate of the transferee or a legatee under a document, which is required by law to be attested, is not placed at the mercy of the attesting witness and the law enables proof to be effected of the document despite denial of the execution of the document by the attesting witness.

71. Reverting back to Section 69 of the Evidence Act, we are of the view that the requirement therein would be if the signature of the person executing the document is proved to be in his handwriting, then attestation of one attesting witness is to be proved to be in his handwriting. In other words, in a case covered under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, the requirement pertinent to Section 68 of the Evidence Act that the attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved by examining at least one attesting witness, is dispensed with. It may be that the proof given by the attesting witness, within the meaning of Section 69 of the Evidence Act, may contain evidence relating to the attestation by the other attesting witness but that is not the same thing as stating it to be the legal requirement under the Section to be that attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved in a case covered by Section 69 of the Evidence Act. In short, in a case covered under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, what is to be proved as far as the attesting witness is concerned, is, that the attestation of one of the attesting witness is in his handwriting. The language of the Section is clear and unambiguous. Section 68 of the Evidence Act, as interpreted by this Court, contemplates attestation of both attesting witnesses to be proved. But that is not the requirement in Section 69 of the Evidence Act.

72. Now, let us turn to Exhibit-B7. It is apposite that we advert to whole of it:

“I know the deceased Rangaswami Naidu. He wrote a will and asked me to attest it. I went. He asked me to attest it. The first signature is mine. The will is Ex. P-68. Every page has been signed by the deceased. After he signed the last page, I signed as witness. Doctor C.S. Ramaswami Iyer is the Doctor at Ramanathapuram. He was also present. I as present when it was registered. The Sub Registrar came home. I have also signed before the Sub Registrar. The deceased was sick. He was able to understand things. I am an income tax practitioner.

Cross Exam.: At that time I was living in a place 11/2 or 2 miles away from the house of the deceased. I went to the deceased’ s house at about 10:30 a.m. I signed at about 11-30 to 12 noon. Doctor came after I went there. He came at 11.30 A.M. I do not know whether the Doctor came to attend on him or came purposely for attesting this document. Sub Registrar came later at about 1 P.M. I remained till the arrival of the Sub Registrar. But the Doctor went away. The Sub Registrar went away at 1-30 to 2 P.M. Doctor did not return later. Doctor was there for a total period of 15 minutes. I remember he gave an injection. But I am not sure of it. When I went there the will was already typed. Rangasami Naidu was lying on the bed. He was being fed by tube. When I was there he was fed once. But I do not remember whether any medicine was given. The ink portions in pages 1 and 4 I do not know who had written it in the body of the document. It has not been subscribed here as to who wrote it or typed it. The deceased had an alisces in the head and he was suffering. He was in pain and suffering. I gave him the minimum trouble as interested in his health. At times in order to recoup from the pain and exhaustion he would lie down quietly. Not to disturb him we asked ______ (sic) restraint. I cannot say whether at every minute he was conscious or half conscious or in a coma.

Re-Exam. When he talked to me he was conscious.

(Sd) B. Venkataswamy Naidu, 1-2-56.

Taken down by me in open court, read over and admitted to be correct. (Sd) K.S. Narasimhan, EFCm. 1-2-56.”

(Emphasis supplied)

73. We must also be detained at this stage by another aspect about Section 69 of the Indian Evidence Act. Section 69 speaks about proving the Will in the manner provided therein. The word ‘proved’ is defined in the Evidence Act in Section 3, as follows: –

“Proved.- A fact is said to be proved when, after considering the matters before it, the Court either believes it to exist, or considers its existence so probable that a prudent man ought, under the circumstances of the particular case, to act upon the supposition that it exists.”

74. Therefore, the question would be whether having regard to the evidence before it, the Court can believe the fact as projected in the evidence as proved. We say this to clarify. In a case, where there is evidence which appears to conform to the requirement under Section 69, the Court is not relieved of its burden to apply its mind to the evidence and find whether the requirements of Section 69 are proved. In other words, the reliability of the evidence or the credibility of the witnesses is a matter for the Court to still ponder over. As far as this case is concerned, the evidence of one of the attesting witnesses is contained in B7 and which we have found relevant under Section 33, establishes that he was an Income Tax Practitioner. He was beckoned by Rangaswami Naidu, informing him that he had written a Will and it was to be attested. He was asked to in fact to attest even upon going there on that day. He speaks about the testator signing on every page and also, he has spoken about him signing. He, no doubt, therefore the establishes requirement of Section 69 in regard to the signature of one of the attesting witnesses being proved in his handwriting. We see no reason to doubt the testimony. As far as signature of the testator is concerned, apart from B7 in B13, the executor has spoken of the testator signing. Also, PW1 has deposed that the Will was shown to him he admitted that every page is contained with the paternal uncle signature. Thus, the requirement of proof of Will under Section 69 are fulfilled.

WHETHER RECEPTION OF BIO AS SECONDARY EVIDENCE LEGAL?

75. Whether the acceptance of BIO which is the certified copy of the Will is vulnerable in law or on facts. The Trial court has found that B68 is the original Will which was produced before the Magistrate in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC This is after over-ruling the contention of the respondents that B68 was not the original Will. The Trial Court has found little merit in the objection against secondary evidence of the Will, viz., certified copy of the registered Will being produced. We have in fact evidence in the form of B7 and XI to show that the Will came to be registered.

76. The original of the Will according to the case of the appellants continued to be with the executor who was in fact the nephew of R. Krishnammal, the widow of Rangaswami Naidu. An attempt was made to get the original Will produced at the relevant time when the executor had passed away, on the basis that his son was in possession of the original Will. He was called upon to produce the Will by Cl. He responded by pointing out that he was not having the original Will with him. The finding of the Trial court as affirmed by the First Appellate Court is that circumstances warranted admission of secondary evidence to prove the Will. We see no reason to take a different view and the view taken by the High Court cannot be sustained.

77. It may be true that in the proceedings in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963, the Will was projected first by R. Krishnammal and thereafter, the plantiffs in O.S. No. 36 of 1963 who are among the appellants before us. However, the matter did not go to trial. We are also of the view that the Will must be proved under the Evidence Act and not with reference to plea of estoppel as taken by the appellants based on the decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, being based on the Will and the respondents having participated not as parties even to the compromise but it is a far cry from finding that the facts of the case did not warrant admission of secondary evidence regarding the Will.

THE WILL: WHETHER IT IS THE GENUINE WILL OF RANGASWAMI NAIDU? WHETHER IT IS VITIATED ON ANY GROUND?

78. We notice the following to be the relevant portions of the Will:

“Last Will and testament executed this 10th day of May 1995 by Sri V. Rangaswami Naidu MLC son of Endapillar Venkataswami Naidu of Uppilipalayam Coimbatore Waluk I own the immovable properties a set out in Sch. A hereto absolutely exclusively and in my own right. These properties include properties purchased by me and properties that has been allotted to me in the family partition between me and my brother Shri R.V. Lakashmaiah Naidu in 1932 and which are in my exclusive possession and enjoyment since that date I have been a divided member from 1932 onwards and have continued to be so till this date. I have also to avoid any uncertainties in this regard made an open declaration of my divided status today. Besides the immovable properties I am entitled to the cash and other amounts as set out in Sch.B hereto I fell that I should make a deposition of my assets in the manner herein indicated in view of my recent ill health and failing strength and also in view of my diffidenceth as I may not live long enough I am not in full possession of my mental powers and I am making this will and Testament after deep deliberation and consideration and with the best of intentions appoint Sri Ramachandra Baidu son of Kangallar Venkataswami Naidu of Metupalayam to be the executor under the will. I bequeath all my landed properties and my house set out in Sch.A to my wife for life, she has no powers of alienation but she is entitled to enjoy the income from the lands and also to manage them. It is my earnest wish that out of the income from the landed properties in my wife should meet the expenses of presents on ceremonial and special occasion in my sisters families after meeting her own family expenses maintenance of the house care to. After my wife’s lifetime the properties V. Rangaswami, 2…… in Sch A shall belong equally and absolutely to the following persons who are my sisters sons 1. V. Kalyanasami Naidu, Son of my sister Thayammal 2. R. Soundararaj as son of my Third Sister Nagammal 3. A. Alagriswami Sonof RangaNayakiammal my forth sister 4. R. Alagiriswami Son of Krishnammal my last sister. It is my earnest wish that these four person should keep the properties for their respective families and should not dispose them off, but in case of need they should sell them in the first instance to any of the other shares. The cash and other securities set out in Sch B valued at Rs.44,000/- (Rupees Forty Four thousand) should be realized as early as possible after my death and shall be paid to the following person in the following manner 1. Srimathi Amirthim Wife of Sri Kalyanaswami afire said Rs.10,000.0.0, 2. Ammaniammal my second sister Rs.10,000.0.0 3. Nagammal my third sister Rs.8,000.0.0 4. Ranganayakiammal my forth sister Rs.8,000.0.0 5. Krishnammal my fifth and last sister Rs.8,000,0.0 I have already made some other provisions for my wife apart from the properties under the will. they are not effected in any manner by these provisions. She is entitled to the movable properties not covered by the schedules hereto. … V. Rangaswami, 3. … This is my 1st will and Testament All previous dispositions and intended dispositions are hereby finally revoked. This will shall come into effect after my life time. …”

79. It will be seen from the Will that the Testator has recited in the Will that he owns the immovable properties set out in Schedule A exclusively and in his own right. The said properties are alleged to include properties purchased by him and properties allotted to him in his family partition between him and his brother in 1932. He further states that he has been a divided member from 1932 onwards and has continued to be so till the date of the Will. Finally, he states that, he, in order to avoid any uncertainties, made an open declaration of his divided status today. The Will further refers to amounts which he is entitled to as set out in Schedule B. Entire properties in Schedule A, including his house, is set out for his wife without powers of alienation. He further states that he expects his wife to make use of the income from the landed properties to be used to meet the expense of presents on ceremonial and special occasions in his sisters families after meeting her own family expense, maintenance of the house. There is a remainder, absolute in nature, given to his four Legatees, i.e., his Nephews through his four sisters. He expressed his earnest wish that the four Legatees should keep the properties for their respective families and should not dispose them off, but in case of need, they should sell them in the first instance to any of the other sharers. The last portion to be noted is the statement that he has already made other provisions for his wife apart from the properties under the Will.

80. There is one aspect which is pressed before us also, in regard to the same, by the respondents. It is contended that the fact that there is no oral partition between brothers in 1932, makes it out to be a case where the Testator has made a rank incorrect statement in the Will which shrouds the Will itself as one which is not genuine.

81. In regard to the aspect about incorrect statement in the will, it is to be noticed that making a totally incorrect statement in a will arouses suspicion. This is on the principle that the testator would not make an incorrect statement when he makes a will. If he makes a rank incorrect statement the inference is that he would not have made that will. This principle will not be applicable in the facts of this case. Making the statement that there was a partition in 1932 and that the properties were allotted to him, is apparently the understanding of the testator. This issue generated debate in the courts. The view expressed by the testator did not find favour with the courts but that is a far cry from describing it as an outright false statement. As long as it is a part of the will which is made by the testator and he believed in it the finding given by the court in this regard will not advance the case of the respondent.

82. We further notice the following aspects:

Rangaswami Naidu was an educated man. He was a former M.L.C. . He was an affluent man. He has no issues. He was affectionate towards his sisters. He has chosen to favour each branch of his sisters by selecting one son out of each branch to be the legatees in whom the property were to vest. In fact, he has also provided that the properties are to remain in the family and should any of the legatees wish to sell, it should be offered to the other legatees. As far as his health is concerned, it is well settled that the requirement of sound disposing capacity is not to be confused with physical well-being. A person who is having a physical ailment may not therefore be robbed of his sound disposing capacity. The fact that a person is afflicted with a physical illness or that he is in excruciating pain will not deprive him of his capacity to make a will. What is important is whether he is conscious of what he is doing and the will reflects what he has chosen to decide. While it may be true that he was suffering from cancer of the throat there is nothing to indicate in the evidence that he was incapable of making up of his own mind in the matter in leaving a will behind. The fact that he was being fed by a tube could hardly have deprived him of his capacity to make a will. We further notice that the will is a registered will. The Registrar came home. Exhibit XI would show that Rangaswami Naidu on being asked to put his thumb impression, he insisted on signing. This course of conduct, in our view, has been correctly appreciated by the first appellate court, the final court on facts. The inference to the contrary sought to be drawn does not appeal to us. From the evidence, it is also clear that the other attesting witness was Dr. C.S. Ramaswamy Iyer a fairly renowned Physician and family friend. PW1, the witness on behalf of the respondent has himself admitted publishing the obituary on the passing away of the said doctor. PW1 speaks about him as a gentleman and he won’t act illegal manner. In B7 the other attesting witness has also spoken about the doctor remaining there and no doubt leaving before the Registrar came. We have already held that the requirement of Section 69 of the Evidence Act stands fulfilled otherwise. The fact that no bequest is made in favour of the sons of Lakshmiah Naidu cannot be treated as a suspicious circumstance. It is clear that Lakshmiah Naidu was extremely wealthy. Making the nephew of his wife executor of the will, in fact, does assure us of the absence of any foul play on the part of the legatees. In his evidence [B13 which is the evidence given by the Executor in 145 proceedings], he has spoken about the testator expressing his desire on 2-3 occasions about wanting to executing a will. From the evidence adduced by PW1 also, we would think that the view taken by the first appellate court regarding the will cannot be characterized as a perverse one warranting interference in the second appeal.

83. Lastly, while the burden to prove the will and to satisfy the conscience of the court that there are no suspicious circumstances or if there are any to explain them is on the propounder of the will, the burden to prove that the will is procured by coercion, undue influence or fraud is on the respondents who have alleged the same. The evidence of PW1 would show that the respondents have failed to prove that the will is vitiated in this regard . Therefore, we would arrive at the conclusion that the will was indeed executed by R. Naidu and was his last will.

84. Undoubtedly, Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu who were brothers, were co-parceners in a Hindu Coparcenary. The case of the appellants is based upon their being a severance of the Hindu Joint Family. The expression ‘the Hindu Joint Family’ is in the context of this case, to be understood as the coparcenary. The argument of the respondents representing the Lakshmiah Naidu branch on the other hand is that, when Rangaswami Naidu died on 01.06.1955 and when, therefore, succession to his estate opened, Lakshmiah Naidu succeeded to the estate of his brother as Rangaswami Naidu died issueless and, therefore, under the law as it stood on that date, Lakshmiah Naidu succeeded to the property by survivorship.

85. The case of the appellants is based, in fact, on their having been an oral partition between the two brothers in the year 1932. Three Courts have found no merit in this contention. In fact, the appellants also did not pursue this line of argument before us. On the other hand, the contention which is pressed before us is that when such succession opened to the estate of Rangaswami Naidu on 01.06.1955, Rangaswami Naidu having published B1 notice dated 10.05.1955, a disruption of the joint family was effected and, therefore, Rangaswami Naidu died separate from his brother. Still furthermore, the appellants case is founded upon B10-Will executed and also got registered on 10.05.1955 by Rangaswami Naidu.

INTEREST IN HINDU JOINT FAMILY; PARTITION; ITS IMPLICATIONS

86. In the light of these contentions, it is necessary to examine the concepts relating to Hindu Joint Family, the effect of its continuance, the manner in which, the joint family comes to an end and also the distinct shades of meaning to the expression ‘division of a joint family’ . Also, we must consider the right of a Hindu in regard to making a Will and the limitation on the same.

87. In Appovier vs. Rama Subba Aiyan and others, (1866) 11 Moore.I.A.75 the Privy Council had occasion to consider these concepts. The appellants before the Court, who were unsuccessful in all the three courts in India, contended that despite there been a division in a Hindu Joint Family, it was not still effective insofar as it had not culminated in a partition by metes and bounds. It was dealing with this question that the court held, inter alia, as follows:

“1. This is an appeal brought from a decree of the Sudder Court at Madras, which affirmed the decree of the Zillah Court of Tinnevelly, which itself affirmed the original decree of the Sudder Ameen of that District. It is, therefore, an appeal from three decrees, unanimous in rejecting the claim of the Appellant. The present appeal is founded upon an allegation that certain property (shares in which are claimed by the Appellant) continues the undivided property of the family of which the Appellant was a member, and which was originally an undivided family. The foundation of the defence to the Appellant’s claim is an instrument, which we will call, for the present purpose, a deed of division, dated the 22nd of March, 1834.

2. Certain principles, or alleged rules of law, have been strongly contended for by the Appellant. One of them is, that if there be a deed of division between the members of an undivided family, which speaks of a division having been agreed upon, to be thereafter made, of the property of that family, that deed is ineffectual to convert the undivided property into divided property until it has been completed by an actual partition by metes and bounds.

3. Their Lordships do not find that any such doctrine has been established; and the argument appears to their Lordships to proceed upon error in confounding the division of title with the division of the subject to which the title is applied.

4. According to the true notion of an undivided family in Hindoo law, no individual member of that family, whilst it remains undivided, can predicate of the joint and undivided property, that he, that particular member, has a certain definite share. No individual member of an undivided family could go to the place of the receipt of rent, and claim to take from the Collector or receiver of the rents, a certain definite share. The proceeds of undivided property must be brought, according to the theory of an undivided family, to the common chest or purse, and then dealt with according to the modes of enjoyment by the members of an undivided family. But when the members of an undivided family agree among themselves with regard to particular property, that it shall thenceforth be the subject of ownership, in certain defined shares, then the character of undivided property and joint enjoyment is taken away from the subject-matter so agreed to be dealt with ; and in the estate each member has thenceforth a definite and certain share, which he may claim the right to receive and to enjoy in severalty, although the property itself has not been actually severed and divided.

xxx xxx xxx xxx

12. Then, if there be a conversion of the joint tenancy of an undivided family into a tenancy in common of the members of that undivided family, the undivided family becomes a divided family with reference to the property that is the subject of that agreement, and that is a separation in interest and in right, although not immediately followed by a de facto actual division of the subject-matter. This may at any time be claimed by virtue of the separate right.”(Emphasis supplied)

88. It is now apposite to notice the judgment of the Privy Council reported in Girja Bai vs. Sadashiv Dhundiraj and others, AIR 1916 PC 104. In the said case, one of the members of a Joint Mitakshara Hindu Family served a notice expressing his desire to get partitioned his one-third share. Thereafter, he instituted the suit for partition. During the pendency of the suit, the plaintiff died survived by his widow. She moved for substitution. This was opposed by the defendants on the ground that at the time of his death, the plaintiff was an undivided member of a Joint Hindu Family and that on his death, his share passed to them by survivorship. This is despite the fact that earlier on, in the suit, the defendants had admitted the plaintiffs claim and contended that they were willing to divide the estate and that the suit was premature. The court referred to the earlier judgement of the Privy Council reported in Pandit Suraj Narain and another vs. Pandit Iqbal Narain and others, (1912-13)40 IA 40 ; (1913) 11 All LJ 172. It is relevant to notice what the court proceeded to lay down:

“25. It appears to their Lordships that the Appellate Court has, in this case, confused the two considerations to which reference has been made above, viz., the severance of status which is a matter of individual volition, with the allotment of shares which may be effected by different methods : by private agreement, by arbitrators appointed by the parties, or, in the last resort, by the Court.”

After referring to the statements in Appovier (supra), the Court held as follows:

“28. Some of the Courts in India have supposed Lord Westbury’s expressions to imply that the severance of status can take place only by agreement. Their Lordships have no doubt that this is a mistaken view. The Board there was dealing with a case in which division of right had already taken place, as evidenced by the ” deed of division.” The right which each individual member had in this joint property did not spring from the deed or the agreement of the parties to which it gave expression; the agreement only recognised existing rights in each individual member which he was entitled to assert at any time he liked. 29. The intention to separate may be evinced in different ways, either by explicit declaration or by conduct.”

89. Next, we must notice the judgment rendered by a Bench of three learned Judges of this Court reported in Addagada Raghavamma and another vs. Addagada Chenchamma and another, AIR 1964 SC 136. In the said case, the appellant before the Court was the widow of one Piechayya. The respondent in the case Chenchamma was the wife of one Venkayya who was, in fact, the son of the brother of Piechayya. In substance, the dispute revolved around the question whether there was a disruption in the Joint Hindu Family brought about prior to the execution of a will by the brother-in-law of the appellant. Subbarao was the son of Venkayya from the marriage with Chenchamma) . Though there were two questions, we are only concerned with second question, viz., whether partition was brought about prior to the execution of the will and we may also notice the further question which arose which was whether a disruption was brought about by the terms of the will itself.

90. The Court proceeded to elaborately consider the evidence on record and came to the conclusion that the evidence did not support the contention of the appellant which was that in 1894, much before the will was executed in the year 1946, a partition has taken place. Thereafter, it is necessary to notice the following paragraphs in the opinion rendered by the court:

“25. Now we shall proceed to deal with the will, Ex. A-2 (a) , on which strong reliance is placed by the learned Advocate-General in support of his contention that on January 14, 1945, that is, the date when the Will was executed, Chimpirayya must be deemed to have been divided in status from his grandson Subbarao. A will speaks only from the date of death of the testator. A member of an undivided coparcenary has the legal capacity to execute a will, but he cannot validly bequeath his undivided interest in the joint family property. If he died an undivided member of the family, his interest survives to the other members of the family, and, therefore, the will cannot operate on the interest of the joint family property. But if he was separated from the family before his death, the bequest would take effect. So, the important question that arises is whether the testator in the present case became separated from the joint family before his death.”

xxx xxx xxx

27. The main question of law that arises is whether a member of a joint Hindu family becomes separated from the other members of the family by mere declaration of his unequivocal intention to divide from the family without bringing the same to the knowledge of the other member of the family. In this context a reference to Hindu law texts would be appropriate, for they are the sources from which Courts evolved the doctrine by a pragmatic approach to problems that arose from time to time. The evolution of the doctrine can be studied in two parts, viz., (2) the declaration of the intention, and (2) communication of it to others affected thereby. On the first part the following texts would throw considerable light. They are collated and translated by Viswanatha Sastri, J. , who has a deed and abiding knowledge of the sources of Hindu law in Adiyalath Katheesumma. vs. Adiyalath Beechu [ILR 1930 Mad 502] ; and we accept his translations as correct and indeed learned counsel on both sides proceeded on that basis. Yajnavalkya, Chapter 11, Section 121. “In land, corrody (annuity, etc.) , or wealth received from the grandfather, the ownership of the father and the son is only equal”. Vijnaneswara commenting on the said sloka says:

“…And thus though the mother is having menstrual courses (has not lost the capacity to bear children) and the father has attachment and does not desire a partition, yet by the will (or desire) of the son a partition of the grandfather’s wealth does take place.” (Setlur’s Mitakshara, pp. 646-48).

Saraswati Vllase, placitum 28. “From this it is known that without any speech (or explanation) even by means of a determination (or resolution) only, partition is effected, just as an appointed daughter is constituted by mere intention without speech.”

Viramitrodaya of Hitra Misra (Chapter II, PI. 23).

“Here too there is no distinction between a partition during the lifetime of the father or after his death and partition at the desire of the sons may take place or even by the desire (or at the will of a single coparcener).

Vyavahara Mayukha of Nilakantabhatta:

(Chapter IV, Section Hi-1) .

“Even in the absence of any common (joint family) property, severance does indeed result by the mere declaration “I am separate from thee” because severance is a particular state (or condition) of the mind and the declaration is merely a manifestation of this mental state (or condition).”

The Sanskrit expressions “sankalpa” (resolution) in Saraswati Vilas, “akechchaya” (will of single coparcener) in Viramitrodaya “budhivisesha” (particular state or condition of the mind) in Vyavahara Mayukha, bring out the idea that the severance of joint status is a matter of individual direction. The Hindu law texts, therefore, support the proposition that severance in status is brought about by unilateral exercise of discretion.

28. Though in the beginning there appeared to be a conflict of views, the later decisions correctly interpreted the Hindu law texts. This aspect has been considered and the law pertaining thereto precisely laid down by the Privy Council in a series of decisions: see Suraj Narain vs. Iqbal Narain [(1912) ILR 35 All 80 (PC)] ; Giria Bai vs. Sadashiv Dhundiraj [(1916) ILR 43 Cal 1031 (PC)] ; Kawal Narain vs. Budh Singh [(1917) ILR 39 All 496 (PC)] ; and Bamalinga Annavi vs. Naravana Annavi [(1922) ILR 45 Mad 489 (PC)] . In Syed Kasam vs. Jorawar Singh [(1922) ILR 50 Cal 84 (PC)] the Judicial Committee, after reviewing its earlier decision laid the settled law on the subject thus:

“It is settled law that in the case of a joint Hindu family subject to the law of the Mitakshara, a severance of estate is effected by an unequivocal declaration on the part of one of the joint holders of his intention to hold his share separately, even though no actual division takes place…. “

So far, therefore, the law is well settled, viz., that a severance in estate is a matter of individual discretion and that to bring about that state there should be an unambiguous declaration to that effect are propositions laid down by the Hindu law texts and sanctioned by authoritative decisions of Courts. But the difficult question is whether the knowledge of such a manifested intention on the part of the other affected members of the family is a necessary condition for constituting a division in status. Hindu law texts do not directly help us much in this regard, except that the pregnant expressions used therein suggest a line of thought which was pursued by Courts to evolve concepts to meet the requirements of a changing society. The following statement in Vyavahara Mayukha is helpful in this context:

“…severance does indeed result by the mere declaration” I am separate from thee’ because severance is a particular state (or condition) of the mind and the declaration is merely a manifestation of this mental state (or condition).”

One cannot declare or manifest his mental state in a vacuum. To declare is to make known, to assert to others. “Others” must necessarily be those affected by the said declaration. Therefore a member of a joint Hindu family seeking to separate himself from others will have to make known his intention to the other members of the family from whom he seeks to separate. The process of manifestation may vary with circumstances. This idea was expressed by learned Judges by adopting different terminology, but they presumably found it as implicit in the concept of declaration. Sadasiva Iyer, J., in Soun-dararaian vs. Arunachalam Chetty [(1915) ILR 39 Mad 159 (PC)] said that the expression “clearly expressed” used by the Privy Council in Suraj Narain vs. Iqbal Narain [(1912) ILR 35 All 80 (PC)] meant “clearly expressed to the definite knowledge of the other coparceners”. In Girja Bai vs. Sadashive Dhundiraj [(1916) ILR 43 Cal 1031 (PC)] the Judicial Committee observed that the manifested intention must be “clearly intimated” to the other coparceners. Sir George Lownles in Bal Krishna vs. Ram Ksishna [(1931) ILR 53 All 300 (PC)] took it as settled law that a separation may be effected by clear and unequivocal declaration on the part of one member of a joint Hindu family to his coparceners of his desire to separate himself from the joint family. Sir John Wallis in Babu Ramasray Prasad Choudhary vs. Radhika Devi [(1935) 43 LW 172 (PC)] again accepted as settled law the propositionthat “a member of a joint Hindu family may effect a separation in status by giving a clear and unmistakable intimation by his acts or declaration of a fixed intention to become separate….” Sir John Wallis, C.J., and Kumaraswami Sastri, J. in Kamepalli Avilamma vs. Mannem Venkataswamy [(1913) 33 MLJ (746)] were emphatic when they stated that if a coparcener did not communicate, during his life time, his intention to become divided to the other coparceners, the mere declaration of his intention, though expressed or manifested, did not effect a severance in status. These decisions authoritatively laid down the proposition that the knowledge of the members of the family of the manifested intention of one of them to separate from them is a necessary condition for bringing about that member’s severance from the family. But it is said that two decisions of the Madras High Court registered a departure from the said rule. The first of them is the decision of Madhavan Nair, J. in Rama Ayyar vs. Meenakshi Ammal [(1930) 33 LW 384] . There, the learned Judge held that severance of status related back to the date when the communication was sent. The learned Judge deduced this proposition from the accepted principle that the other coparceners had no choice or option in the matter. But the important circumstance in that case was that the testator lived till after the date of the service of the notice. If that was so, that decision on the facts was correct.

We shall deal with the doctrine of relating back at a later stage. The second decision is that of a Division Bench of the Madras High Court, consisting of Varadachariar and King, JJ. , in Narayana Rao vs. Purushotama Rao [ILR 1938 Mad 315, 318] . There, a testator executed a will disposing of his share in the joint family property in favour of a stranger and died on August 5, 1926. The notice sent by the testator to his son on August 3, 1926 was in fact received by the latter on August 9, 1926. It was contended that the division in status was effected only on August 9, 1926, when the son received the notice and as the testator had died on August 5, 1926 and the estate had passed by survivorship to the son on that date the receipt of the notice on August 9, 1926 could not divest the son of the estate so vested in him and the will was, therefore, not valid. Varadachariar, J., delivering the judgment of the Bench observed thus:

“It is true that the authorities lay down generally that the communication of the intention to become divided to other coparceners is necessary, but none of them lays down that the severance in status does not take place till after such communication has been received by the other coparceners.”

After pointing out the various anomalies that might arise in accepting the contention advanced before them, the learned Judge proceeded to state:

“It may be that if the law is authoritatively settled, it is not open to us to refuse to give effect to it merely on the ground that it may lead to anomalous consequences; but when the law has not been so stated in any decision of authority and such a view is not necessitated or justified by the reason of the rules, we see no reason to interpret the reference to ‘communication’ in the various cases as implying that the severance does not arise until notice has actually been received by the addressee or addressees.”

We regret our inability to accept this view. Firstly, because, as we have pointed out earlier, the law has been well settled by the decisions of the Judicial Committee that the manifested intention should be made known to the other members of the family affected thereby; secondly, because there would be anomalies on the acceptation of either of the views. Thirdly, it is implicit in the doctrine of declaration of an intention that it should be declared to somebody and who can that somebody be except the one that is affected thereby.

xxx xxx xxx

32. It is, therefore, clear that Hindu law texts suggested and Courts evolved, by a process of reasoning as well as by a pragmatic approach that, such a declaration to be effective should reachthe person or person affected by one process or other appropriate to a given situation.

xxx xxx xxx

34. The third question falls to be decided in this appeal. It is this: what is the date from which severance in status is deemed to have taken place? Is it the date of expression of intention or the date when it is brought to the knowledge of the other members? If it is the latter date, is it the date when one of the members first acquired knowledge or the date when the last of them acquired the said knowledge or the different dates on which each of the members of the family got knowledge of the intention so far as he is concerned? If the last alternative be accepted, the dividing member will be deemed to have been separated from each of the members on different dates. The acceptance of the said principle would inevitably lead to confusion. If the first alternative be accepted, it would be doing lip service to the doctrine of knowledge, for the member who gets knowledge of the intention first may in no sense of the term be a representative of the family. The second alternative may put off indefinitely the date of severance, as the whereabouts of one of the members may not be known at all or may be known after many years. The Hindu law texts do not provide any solution to meet these contingencies. The decided cases also do not suggest a way out. Itis, therefore, open to this Court to evolve a reasonable and equitable solution without doing violence to the principles of Hindu law. The doctrine of relation back has already been recognized by Hindu law developed by courts and applied in that branch of the law pertaining to adoption. There are two ingredients of a declaration of a member’s intention to separate. One is the expression of the intention and the other is bringing the expression to the knowledge of the person or persons affected. When once the knowledge is brought home – that depends upon the facts of each case – it relates back to the date when the intention is formed and expressed. But between the two dates, the person expressing the intention may lose his interest in the family property; he may withdraw his intention to divide; he may die before his intention to divide is conveyed to the other members of the family: with the result his interest survives to the other members. A manager of a joint Hindu family may sell away the entire family property for debts binding on the family. There may be similar other instances. If the doctrine of relation back is invoked without any limitation thereon, vested rights so created will be affected and settled titles may be disturbed. Principles of equity require and common sense demands that a limitation which avoids the confusion of titles must be placed on it. What would be more equitable and reasonable than to suggest that the doctrine should notaffect vested rights? By imposing such a limitation we are not curtailing the scope of any well established Hindu law doctrine, but we are invoking only a principle by analogy subject to a limitation to meet a contingency. Further, the principle of retroactivity, unless a legislative intention is clearly to the contrary, saves vested rights. As the doctrine of relation back involves retroactivity by parity of reasoning, it cannot affect vested rights. It would follow that, though the date of severance is that of manifestation of the intention to separate the right accrued to others in the joint family property between the said manifestation and the knowledge of it by the other members would be saved.

35. Applying the said principles to the present case, it will have to be held that on the death of Chimpirayya his interest devolved on Subbarao and, therefore, his will, even if it could be relied upon for ascertaining his intention to separate from the family, could not convey his interest in the family property, as it has not been established that Subbarao or his guardian had knowledge of the contents of the said will before Chimpirayya died.”

91. The Court also, in paragraph 37, expressed the view that it was not necessary to decide whether the will contained the necessary and unambiguous declaration of intention to divide himself from the family.

92. Next, in the line of decisions of this Court is the judgment reported in Puttrangamma and others vs. M.S. Ranganna and others, AIR 1968 SC 1018. The appeal arose from a suit for partition. One of the questions which arose was whether the plaintiff had died as a divided member of a joint family. In this context, the Court laid down as follows:

“5. It is now a settled doctrine of Hindu Law that a member of a joint Hindu family can bring about his separation in status by a definite, unequivocal and unilateral declaration of his intention to separate himself from the family and enjoy his share in severalty. It is not necessary that there should be an agreement between all the coparceners for the disruption of the joint status. It is immaterial in such a case whether the other coparceners give their assent to the separation or not. The jural basis of this doctrine has been expounded by the early writers of Hindu Law.

93. This Court allowed the appeal on the view it took, viz., that the plaintiff indeed had effected disruption in the joint family on the principles of law which have been articulated.

94. Next, we must refer to the judgment of this Court in Krishnabai Bhritar Ganpatrao Deshmukh vs. Appasaheb Tuljaramarao Nimbalkar and others, (1979) 4 SCC 60. The High Court in the said case, which was a suit for possession and mesne profit, took the view that it was not established that there was a partition effected in the year 1902 as was found by the Trial Court. This Court restored the judgment of the Trial Court and held as follows:

“16. We will take Point No. 1 canvassed by Shri Bal. The primary question that falls to be considered is, whether in 1902 or shortly prior to it, there was a partition between the two brothers – Narayanarao and Ramachandrarao – in a manner known to law. In this connection, it is necessary, at the outset, to notice the fundamental principles of Hindu Law bearing on the point. The parties are admittedly governed by Mitakshara School of Hindu law. In an undivided Hindu family of Mitakshara concept, no member can say that he is the owner of one-half, one-third or one-fourth share in the family property, there being unity of ownership and commensality of enjoyment while the family remains undivided. Such unity and commensality are the essential attributes of the concept of joint family status. Cesser of this unity and commensality means cesser or severance of the joint family status, or, which under Hindu law, is “partition”; irrespective of whether it is accompanied or followed by a division of the properties by metes and bounds. Disruption of joint status, itself, as Lord Westbury put it in Appovier vs. Rama Subba Aiyan [(1886) 11 MIA 75 : 2 SR 218 : 8 WRPC 1] , in effect, “covers both a division of right and division of property”. Reiterating the same position, in Girja Bai vs. Sadashiv [AIR 1916 PC 104 : (1916) 43 IA 151] , the Judicial Committee explained that division of the joint status, or partition implies “separation in interest and in right, although not immediately followed by a de facto actual division of the subject-matter. This may at any time, be claimed by virtue of the separate right”.

17. The division of the joint status may be brought about by any adult member of the joint family by intimating, indicating or representing to the other members in clear and unambiguous terms, his intention to separate and enjoy his share in the family property, in severality. Such intimation, indication or representation may take diverse forms. Sometimes it is evidenced by an explicit declaration (written or oral) ; sometimes it is manifested by conduct of the members of the family in dealing separately with the former family properties. Service of notice or institution of a suit by one member/coparcener against the other members/coparceners for partition and separate possession may be sufficient to cause disruption of the joint status.” (Emphasis supplied)

In Kalyani (dead) by LRs vs. Narayanan and others, AIR 1980 SC 1173 a Bench of three learned Judges, laid down as follows: –

“10. The next stage in the unfolding of the case is whether Ex. P-l is effective as a partition. Partition is a word of technical import in Hindu law. Partition in one sense is a severance of joint status and coparcener of a coparcenary is entitled to claim it as a matter of his individual volition. In this narrow sense all that is necessary to constitute partition is a definite and unequivocal indication of his intention by a member of a joint family to separate himself from the family and enjoy his share in severalty. Such an unequivocal intention to separate brings about a disruption of joint family status, at any rate, in respect of separating member or members and thereby puts an end to the coparcenary with right of survivorship and such separated member holds from the time of disruption of joint family as tenant-in-common. Such partition has an impact on devolution of shares of such members. It goes to his heirs displacing survivorship. Such partition irrespective of whether it is accompanied or followed by division of properties by metes and bounds covers both a division of right and division of property (see Appovier vs. Rama Subba Aiyan [(1886) 11 MIA 75 : 2 Sar 218 : 8 WR PC 1] quoted with approval in Krishnabal Bhritar Ganpatrao Deshmukh vs. Appasaheb Tuljaramarao Nimbalkar [(1979) 4 SCC 60, 68] ). A disruption of joint family status by a definite and unequivocal indication to separate implies separation in interest and in right, although not immediately followed by a de facto actual division of the subject-matter. This may at any time, be claimed by virtue of the separate right (see Girja Bai vs. Sadashiv [AIR 1916 PC 104 : 43 IA 151 : 18 Bom LR 621] ) . A physical and actual division of property by metes and bounds follows from disruption of status and would be termed partition in a broader sense.”

We may notice paragraph 18 also which reads as follows:-

18. One thing is crystal clear that Ex. P-l is not a deed of partition in the sense it does not purport to divide the property amongst various coparceners by metes and bounds. However, in Hindu law qua joint family and joint family property the word “partition” is understood in a special sense. If severance of joint status is brought about by a deed, a writing or an unequivocal declaration of intention to bring about such disruption, qua the joint family, it constitutes partition (see Raghavamma vs. Chenchamna [AIR 1964 SC 136 : (1964) 2 SCR 933 : (1964) 1 SCA 593] ) . To constitute a partition all that is necessary is a definite and unequivocal indication of intention by a member of a joint family to separate himself from the family. What form such intimation, indication or representation of such interest should take would depend upon the circumstances of each case. A further requirement is that this unequivocal indication of intention to separate must be to the knowledge of the persons affected by such declaration. A review of the decisions shows that this intention to separate may be manifested in diverse ways. It may be by notice or by filing a suit. Undoubtedly, indication or intimation must be to members of the joint family likely to be affected by such a declaration.”

This Court in Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambar Gopal Sulakhe and others (supra) held as under:

“14 ……The character of any joint family property does not change with the severance of the status of the joint family and a joint family property continues to retain its joint family character so long as the joint family property is in existence and is not partitioned amongst the co-sharers. By a unilateral act it is not open to anymember of the joint family to convert any joint family property into his personal property.”

IS THERE CONFLICT BETWEEN KALYANI (DEAD) BY LRS VS. NARAYANAN AND OTHERS [AIR 1980 SC 1173] AND BHAGWANT P. SULAKHE VS. DIGAMBAR GOPAL SULAKHE AND OTHERS [AIR 1986 SC 79]

95. In Kalyani (supra) , one Karappan who had two wives and children through them was governed in the matter of inheritance and succession essentially by customary law and in the absence of any specified custom, he was governed by the Hindu Mitakshara Law. He had executed a registered deed PI which was variously described as a Will or as a deed of partition or evidencing a family arrangement. The Suit from which the case arose was filed by the Widow of one of his sons from his first wife. This Court went on to find that PI could not be supported as Will insofar as Karappan had no power to devise by Will ancestral property. The Court further went on to consider whether Bl was effective as a partition. It was in this context that the observations in paragraph-10 of the judgment came to be made. The Court, after making the observations in paragraph-10, found that there was no effective partition by metes and bounds by Bl though the shares of sons were specified as also the provisions for the female members were made. Thereafter it is that the Court posed the question that if Bl is not effective as a Deed of Partition, its effect on the continued Joint Family status had to be examined. It is thereafter that when the court went on to make the observations in para 18 which we have set out. The Court further proceeded to find that by specifying of the share in Exhibit PI there was first a disruption in the joint family by specifying the shares. Once a disruption took place, it was held, in a joint family status, the coparceners ceased to hold the property as joint tenants but they held as tenants in common. It was further the view of the court that the fact that the coparceners continued to stay under the same roof or enjoy the properties without division by metes and bound, did not matter. They did not hold as joint tenants unless reunion was pleaded and established. We are, in this case, also called upon to reconcile what has been laid down in this case with what has been laid down in a later Judgment in. The later decision Bhagwant P. Sulakhe (supra) was also rendered by a bench of three learned Judges.

96. We may briefly notice the facts involved in the said case. The appellant, who was the plaintiff in the Suit along with the Second Defendant therein and two of his brothers, were members of a Joint Hindu Family. There was a public limited company and also a firm. The appellant had acted as a Managing Agent. He had also acted as a Managing Director of the Company. In regard to the same, he had earned remuneration. The question which essentially arose before this Court was whether it was to be treated as the personal income of the appellant or whether it belonged to the joint family. After considering the partnership deed and other materials, the Court, inter alia, observed as follows:

“14 …The character of any joint family property does not change with the severance of the status of the joint family and a joint family property continues to retain its joint family character so long as the joint family property is in existence and is not partitioned amongst the co-sharers.

By a unilateral act it is not open to any member of the joint family to convert any joint family property into his personal property.”

97. The Trial Court, in this case, has laid store by the observations of this Court to the effect that as long as joint family property is in existence and is not in partitioned, the character of the joint family property does not change. It concluded that even if division is brought about by issuance of Bl, the properties of the joint family consisting of V. Rangaswami Naidu and his brother remained joint and it could not be arrogated by V. Rangaswami Naidu as his and they bequeathed, as done. The first appellate court distinguished the decision by stating that it turned on in facts.

98. We would think that there is really no conflict as such. We have already noticed what has already been laid down by the Privy Council in Appovier (supra) . The Court has laid down, inter alia, that when members of the Hindu Undivided Family agree among themselves that a particular property shall be thereafter be subject of ownership in certain defined shares, then, the character of the undivided property and joint enjoyment is taken away from it and each member will thereafter have a definite and certain share, even though the property itself has not been severed and divided.

99. It must be remembered that the said case actually involved an Undivided Hindu Joint Family wherein there was a deed of division and the contention, which had to be considered by the Court, was that, it was ineffectual to convert the undivided property into divided property until it had been completed by an actual partition by metes and bounds. The Court was essentially not considering the effect of a declaration by a coparcener to separate causing a division in a joint family status. The Court was also not considering the question as to whether, on such division in status, the rights of the coparcener, over specific items of properties, will be transformed into exclusive and absolute rights even without an agreement or partition, by metes and bounds.

100. In Girja Bai vs. Sadashiv Dhundiraj, AIR 1916 PC 104 the Privy Council was dealing with a situation where the appellant’ s husband had served a registered notice on the Manager of a Mitakshara Joint Family expressing his desire to get partition and which was followed-up by a Suit for partition. We have noticed paragraph 25 and 28 therein.

101. Therefore, on a conspectus of the discussion we would hold as follows:

Partition has two shades of meaning in Hindu Law we are dealing with. In the one sense, partition is the first step which would ordinarily culminate in a metes and bounds partition. In a coparcenary, there is joint tenancy. A Hindu Coparcenary, which cannot be created by agreement between parties but is the creation of law, can be disrupted or a division is caused by a unilateral declaration by a coparcener to put an end to the joint family. What the coparcener has before the division is produced, is an interest, as has been referred to in both Sections 6 and 30 of the Hindu Succession Act. Upon a declaration being made, expressing intent to separate without anything more but no doubt on communication of the same to the other coparcener/coparceners, partition in the above sense viz. causing a division of title takes place. As already noticed, the partition in the aforesaid sense has far-reaching consequences. The joint tenancy, which includes the concept of Right to Inherit by Survivorship, is terminated with the partition being effected in the first sense. If the coparcener dies after causing such a partition, as the right on the basis of Doctrine of Survivorship is annihilated, his death, after such partition, would result in his heirs becoming entitled to succeed. In that sense, joint tenancy would be replaced by tenancy in common but that is not the same as saying that the properties of the family, where there has been a partition in the first sense, will without anything more stand transformed into the separate and exclusive properties of the divided members. This is the view, which is taken by this Court in Bhagwant P.Sulakhe. We are unable to subscribe to the view taken by the First Appellate Court that the principles of law, which are contained in paragraph-14 of the Judgment, as extracted by us, are merely to be understood in the special facts of the said case. Partition, in a broader sense and as is commonly understood, is the division of the properties in accord with the shares.

WHETHER A HINDU COULD MAKE A WILL?

WHAT WERE THE LIMITS ON HIS POWER TO EXECUTE A WILL? ARE THERE ANY CHANGES BROUGHT ABOUT BY ENACTING SECTION 30 OF THE HINDU SUCCESSION ACT, 1956?

102. It would appear that the treatises in Hindu Law do not contain reference to the concept of a will. However, over a period of time, courts have recognised the powers for a Hindu to make a will. We are concerned in this case with Mitakshara Law. Thereunder, a Hindu could bequeath his separate and self-acquired properties even prior to the Hindu Succession Act being enacted. A Hindu being a member of the joint family could also possess his separate property which are of various kinds. They include obstructed heritage which is property inherited by a Hindu from another who is a person other than his father, father’s father or great grandfather, Government grant, income of separate property, all acquisitions by means of learning (declared by Hindu Gains of Learning 1930) See in this regard para 228 of Mulla on Hindu Law 23rd edition page 341-342 . As far as the law governing the making of the will is concerned there was no particular law which governed the same. It is in the year 1865 that the Succession Act came to be passed. It was not applicable to Hindus. The Hindu Wills Act 1870 which had limited application (it applied inter alia to Wills by Hindus in the town of Madras) no doubt made certain provisions of the Indian Succession Act of 1865 applicable to Hindus. Under the Probate and Administration Act, 1881 the executor, subject to law relating to survivorship was the legal representative of a Hindu. Section 211 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 continues the same legal position. However, the Indian Succession Act of 1925 which repealed the earlier Succession Act has through Section 57 made the provisions of Part VI which are set out in schedule III to the Act applicable toall wills and codicils made by any Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jain made on or after the 1st January 1927 to which those provisions are not applied under the preceding clauses viz. clauses (a) and (b) Section 57. It is thus that after 1st of January, 1927 in the matter of an unprivileged will executed by a Hindu, the requirement of Section 63 which includes attestation of such a will by a minimum of two witnesses became mandatory. Thus, the execution of a will by a Hindu also came to be regulated from the 1st of January, 1927.

103. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act reads as follows:

“30. Testamentary succession. -Any Hindu may dispose of by will or other testamentary disposition any property, which is capable of being so disposed of by him or by her] , in accordance with the provisions of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 (39 of 1925) , or any other law for the time being in force and applicable to Hindus. Explanation.- The interest of a male Hindu in a Mitakshara coparcenary property or the interest of a member of a tarwad, tavazhi, illom, kutumba or kavaru in the property of the tarwad, tavazhi, illom, kutumba or kavaru shall notwithstanding anything contained in this Act or in any other law for the time being in force, be deemed to be property capable of being disposed of by him or by her within the meaning of this section”.

104. Does it bring about a change in law relating to power of a Hindu to execute a will? As noticed earlier even prior to Hindu Succession Act, a Hindu could execute a will bequeathing his separate and self-acquired property. As regards his authority to execute a will concerning his interest in the property of the joint family of which he is a coparcener, the law did not permit such an exercise. We may refer to the judgment of this Court in M. N. Aryamur thy vs. M.D. Subbaraya Setty, 1972(4) SCC 7; wherein this Court held as follows:

“..But unfortunately, Lachiah, though a father, could not, under the Hindu Law, dispose of, by will, joint family property or any part thereof and as a will it was clearly inoperative on the various dispositions made by him (See Parvatibai vs. Bhagwant Pandharinath: 39 Bom 593: AIR 1915 Bom 265 and Subbarami Reddi vs. Ramamma; 43 Mad 824: AIR 1920 Mad 637). This latter case has questioned the correctness of a previous decision of that Court in Appan Patra Chariar vs. V.S. Srinivasa Charriar and Others; 40 Mad 1122: AIR 1918 Mad 531. The decisions proceed on the principle which was well-settled in Vital Putten vs. Yamenamma; (1874) 8 MHCR 6 and Lakshman Dada Naik vs. Ramachandra Dada Nair; 5 Bom 48 (PC) : 7 IA 181, that a co-parcener cannot devise joint family property by will, because, on the date of his death when the will takes effect, there is nothing for the will to operate on, as, at the moment of his death, his interest passes by survivorship to the other coparceners.”

105. In Villiammai Achi vs. Nagappa Chettiar and another, AIR 1967 SC 1153 this Court, inter alia, held:

“10. … The property being joint family property Pallaniappa’s father was not entitled to will it away and his making a will would make no difference to the nature of the property when it came into the hands of Pallaniappa. A father cannot turn joint family property into absolute property of his son by merely making a will, thus depriving sons of the son who might be born thereafter of their right in the joint family property. It is well settled that the share which a co-sharer obtains on partition of ancestral property is ancestral property as regards his male issues. They take an interest in it by birth whether they are in existence at the time of partition or are born subsequently: [see Hindu Law by Mulla, 13th Edn., p. 249, para 223(2) (4)]. If that is so and the character of the ancestral property does not change so far as sons are concerned even after partition, we fail to see how that character can change merely because the father makes a will by which he gives the residue of the joint family property (after making certain bequests) to the son. A father in a Mitakshara family has a very limited right to make a will and Pallaniappa’s father could not make the will disposing of the entire joint family property, though he gave the residue to his son. We are therefore of opinion that merely because Pallaniappa’s father made the will and Pallaniappa probably as a dutiful son took out probate and carried out the wishes of his father, the nature of the property could not change and it will be joint family property in the hands of Pallaniappa so far as his male issues are concerned.”

106. As to whether Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act brings about the radical departure of the power of a Hindu in the matter of making Will, we may refer to the decision of full Bench of the Mysore High Court in Sundara Adapa vs. Girija, ‘AIR 1962 (Mysore) 72. Justice K.S. Hegde as his Lordship then was speaking for the Bench held:-

“15. It is well known that till the “Act” came into force, the interest of a coparcener in a Hindu joint family, be it a Mitakshara family or an Aliyasantana family, could not be disposed of by means of a testament, as by the time his will took effect his interest in the undivided family would have been taken by survivorship by the other coparceners. The Indian Succession Act did not make any inroad into that position. The relevant provisions of the Indian Succession Act are found in Part VI (Provisions relating to testamentary succession) read with the rules found in Schedule III. But they are also subject to the restrictions and modifications specified in that schedule. Restriction No. 1 in Schedule III says:- “Nothing therein contained shall authorise a testator to bequeath property which he could not have alienated inter vivos, or to deprive any persons of any right of maintenance of which, but for the application of this section, he could not deprive them by will.”

17. Neither under the customary law nor under the Aliyasantana Act nor under the Indian Succession Act the interest of a coparcener in an Aliyasantana Kutumba could have been disposed of by testamentary disposition. In that regard a definite change in the law was made by means of the Explanation to Sec. 30(1) of the “Act”. There is no dispute that at present a member of an undivided Aliyasantana kutumba could dispose of his interest in the kutumba properties by means of a will. But we are unable to agree with Srli G.K. Govind Bhat when he says that Explanation to Sec. 30(1) enlarged the rights of a divided coparcener. The object of Section 30 is clear. That section neither directly nor by necessary Implication deals with the devolution of divided interest. As mentioned earlier, its purpose islimited. The language employed is plain and therefore no question of interpretation arises. It is not correct to contend, a, done by Sri Bhat, that it the Explanation to S. 30(1) is understood in the manner the respondents want us to understand, a coparcener who dies undivided would leave a more valuable estate to his heirs than one who dies divided. In most cases, the share taken by a nissanthathi kavaru though limited to the duration of the life of kavaru would be larger in extent than one unprovided under Sec. 7(2) of the “Act”.

We find that this Court in Jalaja Shedthi & Ors. vs. Lakshmi Shedthi & Ors.; 1973(2) SCC 773 has approved of view taken by the High court in the aforesaid case. In other words, as we have already noted in the case of property of the joint family as long as the property is joint, the right of the coparcener can be described as an interest. The reason why we are saying this is as long as the family remains joint, a coparcener or even a person who is entitled to share when there is a partition cannot predicate or describe his right in terms of his share. The share remains shrouded and emerges only with division in title or status in the joint family. Once there is a division the share of acoparcener is laid bare. In this regard we may notice the judgment of this Court in Hardeo Rai vs. Sakvm.ta.la Devi and others, 2008(7)SCC 46 in paragraphs 22 and 23. It reads as under:

“22. For the purpose of assigning one’s interest in the property, it was not necessary that partition by metes and bounds amongst the coparceners must take place. When an intention is expressed to partition the coparcenary property, the share of each of the coparceners becomes clear and ascertainable. Once the share of a coparcener is determined, it ceases to be a coparcenary property. The parties in such an event would not possess the property as “joint tenants” but as “tenants-in-common”. The decision of this Court in SBI [(1969) 2 SCC 33 : AIR 1969 SC 1330] , therefore, is not applicable to the present case.

23. Where a coparcener takes definite share in the property, he is owner of that share and as such he can alienate the same by sale or mortgage in the same manner as he can dispose of his separate property.”

It is important to notice that what this Court has laid down that he becomes owner of “that share” and he can alienate the same’. It is different from saying that he is owner of the property in the sense of being the exclusive owner.

[See also in this regard the law as laid down in Appovier case (supra) in para 4 thereof].

107. We may also notice that even under the law prior to Hindu Succession Act there could be four situations. In regard to a member of a joint Hindu family who also has his separate property he could bequeath his separate property. As far as joint family property is concerned, there could be three situations. The first situation is where the family remains joint in which case the coparcener would have an interest. As far as this interest is concerned, it could not be the subject matter of the will prior to the Hindu Succession Act. The second situation is in a case where there is a disruption in title or a division in status. What we mean is there is a partition in the sense of a division in the joint family status caused by any unequivocal declaration by a coparcener which is communicated. It can be by words. It can be by conduct. It can also embrace the very filing of a suitfor partition. When such disruption takes place then the share of the coparcener in the joint family property becomes a reality and takes concrete shape in accordance with law and the rights of the members of the family. As already noticed, this may or may not be accompanied simultaneously with a metes and bounds partition. In such a scenario under the law prior to the Hindu Succession Act, having achieved disruption in the joint family, the right based on the principle of survivorship perishes. The share of the coparcener becomes undeniable. Should he die intestate the share would go not to the other coparceners by survivorship but to his heirs. It also opens the door to the coparcener to exercise his right to bequeath his share in accordance with his wishes. This power was certainly available to a Hindu even prior to Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act. The third scenario would be a situation where following a division in title or status in the family there is also a metes and bounds partition of the properties of the family in accordance with the share. It cannot be open to doubt that in fact, capacity of a Hindu to bequeath such property existed even prior to the Hindu Succession Act. In fact, the property obtained as a share on a partition by a coparcener who has no male issues is treated as his separate property. As regards the effect of a son born after partition we need not pronounce on the same. After the amendment to the Succession Act 2005 including the daughters of a coparcener as coparceners in their own right, if a Hindu has a female issue then the property allotted to him on partition will partake of the nature of coparcenary property. See in this regard the following discussion in para 228 clause (6) at page 342 in “Mulla on Hindu Law”: 23rd Edition: Cataloguing different kinds of separate property:-

“(6)Share on partition – Property obtained as his share on partition by a coparcener who has no male issue (see S. 221(4)). This position is now materially altered with the inclusion of daughters of a coparcener as coparceners in their own right by the amendment in the Hindu Succession Act 2005. If therefore, even if a coparcener who has obtained a share on partition has no male issue but has a female issue, the property allotted to him on partition will partake the nature of coparcenary property. The above proposition will therefore have to be read as a coparcener having been allotted a share on partition, takes it as his separate property when he has no issue. This is since, by virtue of the amendment, as the distinction between male and female children of a coparcener stands abrogated and abolished, both having been given equality of status as coparceners.”

108. After the passage of the Hindu Succession Act even without there being a partition in the sense of a declaration communicated by one coparcener to another to bring about the division it is open to a Hindu to bequeath his interest in the joint family. In other words, the words “interest in coparcenary property” can be predicated only when there is a joint family which is in tact in status and not when there is a partition in the sense of there being a disruption in status in the family. Thus, the right of a Hindu in the coparcenary joint family is an interest. Upon disruption or division, it assumes the form of a definite share. When there is a metes and bounds partition then the share translates into absolute rights qua specific properties.

THE IMPACT OF THE HINDU WOMENS RIGHT TO PROPERTY ACT, 1937 (XVIII OF 1937) (HEREINAFTER REFERRED TO AS ‘THE 1937 ACT’, FOR SHORT).

It is apposite to notice Sections 2, 3 and 5 of the 1937 Act:

“2. Application. -Notwithstanding any rule of Hindu law or custom to the contrary, the provisions of section 3 shall apply where a Hindu dies intestate.

3. Devolution of property. –

(1) When a Hindu governed by the Dayabhaga School of Hindu Law dies intestate leaving any property, and when a Hindu governed by any other school of Hindu law or by customary law dies intestate leaving separate property, his widow, or if there is more than one widow, all his widows together, shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3) , be entitled in respect of property in respect of which he dies intestate to the same share as a son: Provided that the widow of a predeceased son shall inherit in like manner as a son if there is no son surviving of such predeceased son, and shall inherit in like manner as a son’s son if there is surviving a son or son’ s son of such predeceased son: Provided further that the same provision shall apply mutatis mutandis to the widow of a predeceased son of a predeceased son.

(2) When a Hindu governed by any school of Hindu law other than the Dayabhaga school or by customary law dies having at the time of his death an interest in a Hindu joint family property, his widow shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3) , have in the property the same interest as he himself had.

(3) Any interest devolving on a Hindu widow under the provisions of this section shall be the limited interest known as a Hindu woman’s estate, provided however that she shall have the same right of claiming partition as a male owner.

(4) The provisions of this section shall not apply to an estate which by a customary or other rule of succession or by the terms of the grant applicable thereto descends to a single heir or to any property to which the Indian Succession Act, 1925, applies.

xxx xxx xxx

5. Meaning of expression “die intestate”. -For the purpose of this Act a person shall be deemed to die intestate in respect of all property of which he has not made a testamentary disposition which is capable of taking effect.”

As can be seen, Section 3 of the 1937 Act applies when a Hindu dies intestate.

It is important to notice that Section 3(1) of the 1937 Act deals with the case of the Hindu dying intestate leaving behind separate property. In such a situation, should there be one widow, she becameentitled in respect of the property to the same share as the son. This was made subject to sub-Section (3) which declares that, the interest devolving on her, would be a limited interest known as Hindu Woman’ s Estate. The more important change that was brought about is located in Section 3(2) . Thereunder, when a Hindu governed by any School of Law, other than Dayabagha or Customary Law, dies, leaving behind at the time of his death, an interest in a Hindu Joint Family property, his widow is conferred the same interest as her husband had. This is again made subject to the provision of sub-Section (3) which makes it a limited interest known as the Hindu Woman’s Estate. It will be, at once, noticed that the Legislature had not used the words “dies intestate” in Section 3(2), whereas, in Section 3(1), the Legislature contemplated a situation, where a Hindu could bequeath his separate property and has taken care to provide only for a contingency where he died intestate. No doubt Section 2 proclaimed that Section 3 was to be applied when a Hindu died intestate. When it comes to Section 3(2), in regard to a case covered by Mitakshara law, theLegislature has, in keeping with the law as then prevailing, recognised that a Hindu could not execute a Will in regard to his interest in a Hindu Joint Family. It is this concept, which has been swept away by enacting the Explanation to Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, whereunder, it is open to a Hindu to even bequeath his interest in the Hindu Joint Family property. Coming back to Section 3(2) of the Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act, the Legislature has advisedly chosen the words “interest in the Hindu Joint Family property”, which may be contrasted with the provisions under Section 3(1), which contemplates the Hindu leaving behind separate property. Therefore, Section 3(2) contemplates the situation, where, at the time when the Hindu dies after the enactment of the Act in 1937 (it came into force on 14th April, 1937 and it was repealed by Section 31 of the Hindu Succession Act 1956) , in order that the widow acquires the same interest as her husband had under Section 3(2) , the Hindu must die when he is not separated from the joint property. If a Hindu, when he dies, is separated and, at least, qua him, there is no Hindu Joint Family, it would not be a case where Section 3(2) would apply. It is to be noted that, a Hindu when he dies intestate he may have an interest in a Hindu joint family and at the same time also have separate properties. Then qua his separate properties, Section 3(1) would apply whereas in regard to his interest in the joint family, Section 3(2) would govern. Section 3(1) cannot apply as the properties in dispute were not his separate properties.

What is the impact of this enactment on the claim for survivorship made by the Lakshmiah Naidu, the brother of V. Rangaswami Naidu? Did the Right by Survivorship, survive the passing of the 1937 Act? What is the nature of the Right, which is granted under Section 3(2) of the 1937 Act to a Hindu Widow? These questions have fallen for consideration before the Courts.

We need only refer to one judgment, i.e. , Satrughan Isser vs. Sabujpari and others, AIR 1967 SC 272. To quote:

“7. By the Act certain antithetical concepts are sought to be reconciled. A widow of a coparcener is invested by the Act with the same interest which her husband had at the time of his death in the property of the coparcenary. She is thereby introduced into the coparcenary, and between the surviving coparceners of her husband and the widow so introduced, there arises community of interest and unity of possession. But the widow does not on that account become a coparcener: though invested with the same interest which her husband had in the property she does not acquire the right which her husband could have exercised over the interest of the other coparceners. Because of statutory substitution of her interest in the coparcenary property in place of her husband, the right which the other coparceners had under the Hindu law of the Mitakshara school of taking that interest by the rule of survivorship remains suspended so long as that estate enures. But on the death of a coparcener there is no dissolution of the coparcenary so as to carve out a defined interest in favour of the widow in the coparcenary property: Lakshmi Perumallu vs. Krishnavanamma [AIR (1965) SC 825] . The interest acquired by her under Section 3(2) is subject to the restrictions on alienation which are inherent in her estate. She has still power to make her interest definite by making a demand for partition, is a male owner may. If the widow after being introduced into family to which her husband belonged does not seek partition, on the termination of her estate her interest will merge into the coparcenary property. But if she claims partition, she is severed from the other members and her interest becomes a defined interest in the coparcenary property, and the right of the other coparceners to take that interest by survivorship will stand extinguished. If she dies after partition on her estate is otherwise determined, the interest in coparcenary property which has vested in her will devolve upon the heirs of her husband. It is true that a widow obtaining an interest in coparcenary property by Section 3(2) does not inherit that interest but once her interest has ceased to have the character of undivided interest in the property, it will upon termination of her estate devolve upon her husband’s heirs. To assume as has been done in some decided cases that the right of the coparceners to take her interest on determination of the widow’s interest survives even after the interest has become definite, because of a claim for partition, is to denude the right to claim partition of all reality.”

The position at law may therefore, may be culled out as follows:

With the passing of the 1937 Act, in areas to which it applied, an intrusion was indeed made upon a coparceners right to set-up a claim to the property of a deceased coparcener based on the Doctrine of Survivorship but the Act did not annhilate the said Right. The Right to claim by Survivorship came to be suspended but not extinguished. The widow, though not a coparcener, was like a coparcener in most respects. She was also conferred with the right to claim partition. Aslong as she did not claim partition and the property remained intact upon her death, the Right to Claim by Survivorship which stood eclipsed, revived and the coparceners would become entitled to the property on the basis that succession opened as if the coparcener died when the widow died. On the other hand, if the widow claimed partition, her interest transformed into a defined interest and the Right to Claim by Survivorship, which stood suspended, was destroyed. The property would then enure to the heirs of the husband. It is also to be noted that, by virtue of Section 3(2), there is no rupture in the coparcenary. There is no division brought about by Section 3 (2) of the 1937 Act, in other words.

We must also not be oblivious to two developments which took place after succession opened to the estate of V. Rangaswami Naidu on 01.06.1955. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 containing Section 14 came to be passed, the effect of which will be discussed later. Secondly, we may also notice that R. Krishnammal the widow, filed O.S. No. 71 of 1958 wherein as an alternate prayer, she sought partition. We have already noticed the principle which has been laid down about the effect of a demand for partition by a widow in whom the Right came to be vested under Section 3(2) of the 1937 Act. But, as we have noticed, the supervening Legislation in the form of the Hindu Succession Act, if it did confer absolute rights under Section 14(1) , it is a matter of law as to what was the nature of the Right R. Krishnammal possessed, even when she instituted O.S. No. 71 of 1958. It is clear than when succession opened to the estate on 1.6.1955 if Section 3(2) applied, then Lakshmiah Naidu would have only a suspended right of survivorship. There is the compromise decree in OS 71 of 1958 under which R. Krishnammal has given up all her rights in the plaint schedule properties in favour of the Lakshmiah branch.

109. We find legislative recognition of this concept of interest’ in joint family in Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act. Section 6 prior to its substitution by Amending Act 39 of 2005 provided that in the case of male Hindu dying after the Act possessing an interest in Mitakshara coparcenary property, the property was to devolve by survivorship, subject to the proviso. What is of greater relevance is the terms of explanation. The terms of the explanation I as it stood which is retained as the explanation in subsection (3) of Section 6 after the amendment reads as follows:

Explanation.-For the purposes of this subsection, the interest of a Hindu Mitakshara coparcener shall be deemed to be the share in the property that would have been allotted to him if a partition of the property had taken place immediately before his death, irrespective of whether he was entitled to claim partition or not.

110. Therefore, the concept that what a coparcener in a Mitakshara family had prior to partition, is an interest, is reiterated. For the purpose of Section 6, however, in order to determine the extent of that interest it is deemed to be the share which he would get if there was a notional partition just prior to his death. Partition in the sense of a disruption however determines the extent of share which would devolve under Section 8 of the Act. We make it clear that we must not treated as having pronounced that the notional partition contemplated under the explanation to Section 6 is meant to bring about the demise of the coparcenary as such. The Explanation to Section (30) also speaks of interest’ as being property’ which a Hindu could after the Hindu Succession Act bequeath.

WHAT IS TITLE OF V. RANGASWAMI NAIDU, WHICH HE COULD PASS?

111. O.S. No. 89 of 1983 is a Suit where there is a declaration of the plaintiff s right sought and also a Decree of Partition. The cause of action is based on the remainder right traced from the terms of the Will dated 10.05.1955. It is apposite to bear in mind one aspect. In a proceeding instituted to obtain probate of a Will, if a contention is raised about the title of the Testator, it would be foreign to the scope of the inquiry to enquire into the title of the Testator. The court, considering the grant or refusal of the probate is only to deal with the question as to whether the Will was the last and genuine Will executed by the Testator. Questions relating to title would have to be pursued before the appropriate Forum (See Kanwarjit Singh Dhillon vs. Hardyal Singh Dhillon, (2007) 1 SCC 357) . Would that be the position in the case of the title Suit wherein a plaintiff invites the court to pass a Decree for partition and qua the partition suit, Defendants 1 to 3 who are among the appellants before us, would stand in the shoes of a plaintiff. We would think that 0.S. No. 89 of 1983 and even O.S. No. 649 of 1985, are Suits based on title. The question relating to the right to the property involved must be gone into and decided.

112. We have already found that in the claim that V. Rangawami Naidu acquired title to the properties by way of oral partition, cannot be accepted. The claim that he had acquired properties by way of self-acquisition, also may not stand. If there has been a disruption in the family status, partition in the narrow sense of a division in title takes place. We have also found that the mere fact that there is a division effected in the joint family, would not mean that, in law, V. Rangaswami Naidu could claim exclusive and absolute ownership qua the items covered under the Will. The plaint schedule properties are, admittedly, part of the properties scheduled to the Will. The result would be that, in terms of the legal principles applicable, we would find that V. Rangaswami Naidu did not have exclusive right as such qua the properties scheduled under the Will.

113. However, the reasoning of the First Appellate Court may be noticed in this regard. After finding that a co-owner cannot unilaterally allot specific properties to his share, the Appellate Court took the following aspects into consideration:

The respondents (plaintiffs in O.S. No. 649 of 1985) were aware in the earlier litigation (O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963) that V. Rangaswami Naidu had made unilateral allotment, and even though they had got opportunity in the above two instances, they did not raise any objection over the unilateral allotment. Next, the Appellate Court took note of the fact that there were more than ninety-three items of properties of more than hundreds acres of land of Hindu Joint Family consisting of the brothers, and therefore, the allotment of a small portion cannot be held as unjust one. R. Krishnammal had tried to establish her right in the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC. The earlier Suits, i.e., O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963, were filed on the basis of the Will. The respondents had enough opportunities to challenge the unilateral allotment and they failed to utilise the same, and therefore, their consequential acts gained much importance. The Court also distinguished the judgment in Bhagwant P. Sulakhe (supra) . It is further found that since V. Rangaswami Naidu had given written rejoinder confirming the newspaper publication dated 10.05.1955, the declaration cannot be held as unilateral and his actions had (were’ sic) changed the character of the Hindu Joint Family properties. Therefore, it is found that having failed to raise any objection and acted accepting the allotment, the respondents have no right to deny the life interest of R. Krishnammal and the vested interest of the appellants.

114. The entire reasoning of the Appellate Court is that while one coparcener, even after there is a division, cannot unilaterally appropriate any specific property as his exclusive property, in view of the conduct of the respondents in not challenging the said allotment in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 and O.S. No. 36 of 1963, they cannot be permitted to challenge the nature of the right to the properties. The Appellate Court also relied on the fact that the plaint schedule properties (less than 37 acres) is a small part compared to the large extent of properties which belonged to the coparcenary consisting of the two brothers.

115. As far as O.S. No. 71 of 1958 is concerned, the respondents have produced Al-Plaint. As already noted, there was no occasion for adjudication of the matter as the case was compromised. The appellants, in fact, would claim that they are not even bound by the said Decree. This is for the reason that under the said Decree, the plaint schedule properties herein have been recognised as the absolute properties of the respondents. If any reliance is to be placed on the said Decree, then, the fact that under the compromise Decree, the entire rights have been given-up by the life estate holder R. Krishnammal, stares one in his face. A2 is the compromise Decree. It is dated 21.07.1958. The Suit was filed on 10.04.1958. It apparently may have suited the respondents to not allow the matter to go to trial. The testimony of PW1 shows, inter alia, as follows:

R. Krishnammal has informed as how much you can give me. R. Krishnammal has asked for one house to live and land for food, otherwise, she did not ask for equal share in the property.

116. As far as O.S. No. 36 of 1963 is concerned, A3 is the Plaint. In A4-Written Statement filed by R. Krishnammal-First Defendant, she disputed the case about the compromise and she defended the compromise in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. The respondents were, in fact, initially not parties. We have already noticed that the compromise Decree, which ensued even in the said case, modifying the absolute estate of R. Krishnammal and limiting it to a life estate in regard to Item Nos. 5 and 6, did involve reiteration of the Will. The question would, however, arise whether, by such conduct alone, viz., by being parties in the said Suit, and later on when the compromise took place, by signing the same not as parties but in token of their having seen the endorsement made by plaintiff therein and R. Krishnammal and Defendant No.3 (another Legatee), they have acknowledged the title to Item Nos. 5 and 6, that it vested with V. Rangaswami Naidu and, furthermore, whether it should be treated as acknowledging the exclusive title in regard to the plaint schedule properties involved in this case and which were not scheduled in O.S. No. 36 of 1963.

117. It is to be remembered that while on the one hand, R. Krishnammal, in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, set-up the Will, as also the case of oral partition and exclusive ownership of her late husband, she also was willing to adopt the stand of the Lakshmiah branch that her late husband and his brother were not separated. On the said basis, she had also laid a claim based on the Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act, 1937, and what is more, also relied upon the Hindu Succession Act. It is this Suit which was compromised. It is certainly not possible to predicate on what basis Lakshmiah branch became amenable for the compromise. It might have been different if the cause of action of R. Krishnammal was based solely on the basis of the Will. In this case, having regard to the alternate case set-up based on the rights available to her, as aforesaid, and noticing that some items out the Will were recognised as her own, and the other items which included items which were included in the Will and also part of the larger joint family property, she has given-up her rights, it cannot be characterised as not using of the opportunity by the Lakshmiah branch to challenge the unilateral allocation by V. Rangaswami Naidu.

118. In O.S. No. 36 of 1963 also, as we have already discussed, at the time of the compromise in 1974, the Lakshmiah branch was already party to the compromise in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, under which they had, in fact, recognised the absolute rights in regard to Item Nos. 5 and 6 in favour of R. Krishnammal. It mattered little to them that under the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 36 of 1963, it was to be enjoyed as a life estate by R. Krishnammal and to be not alienated by her. We have noticed that it was stated that no relief was claimed against the other Defendants in the said Suit. The inference drawn by the First Appellate Court based on not making use of the opportunity to challenge the unilateral allocation, in such circumstance, does not appeal to us.

119. Coming to the second aspect, the First Appellate Court has noticed the fact that the property belonging to the family, was much bigger, as a result of which the unilateral allotment could not be treated as unjust. It does not address the legal issues. On the basis that there is a division in the joint family status, undoubtedly, V. Rangaswami Naidu would be freed from the stranglehold of the principle that a Hindu could not bequeath his interest in the undivided family. As we have noticed, the moment there is a division, what emerges is the share of the erstwhile coparcener. In this case, there are only two coparceners, viz., V. Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu. They would have one-half share between themselves. Undoubtedly, if V. Rangaswami Naidu had bequeathed his one-half share, it could not have generated legal controversy. We emphasise that this is subject to there having been a disruption. We have also noticed that if there is a disruption in the Joint Family status and partition in the narrow sense, it produces the consequence that as regards the share of the separated coparcener, his share becomes immune from any claim based on the Doctrine of Survivorship. We have also noticed that a bequest by a member of his interest in an undivided family, was juridically anathema, as under the Doctrine of Survivorship, persons claiming under the birth right over the property, would be preferred to those claiming under a Will. Once, this obstruction over the right of the legal heir is removed in the case of intestate succession, it would be the heirs, who would succeed. If that be so, can not a Hindu, be it before the Hindu Succession Act, bequeath specific properties over which he would have undoubtedly joint rights?

120. What would be the position after bringing about a division in title but before there is a partition of the property by metes and bounds? We have noticed that during the interregnum, the properties of the family would continue to remain joint[See 1986(1) SCC 366]. In other words, unless there is a partition, qua, the properties, though the shares are ascertained by the partition in the sense of a division in the joint family, no coparcener could point to any specific item and claim it to be his.

121. Now, what would be the position in regard to the power of a Hindu in the erstwhile State of Madras to transfer a specific item of property even when the family is intact. A Full Bench of the Madras High Court has dealt with this question in the decision reported in Aiyyagari Venkataramayya and another vs. AiyyagariRamayya, (1902) ILR 25 Madras 690. The pointed question which actually arose before the Court on a reference to the Full Bench was, the effect of the death of the vendor after he effects sale of his interest in the Hindu Undivided Family. The contention apparently raised was, having regard to the Doctrine of Survivorship, if the vendee did not institute a Suit to enforce his rights, while the vendor was alive, the vendee would have no right at all to enforce. Justice Bashyam Ayyangar has authored a separate Judgement wherein he has surveyed exhaustively the entire case law. The learned Judge holds inter alia as follows:

“The question of a member of an undivided Hindu family alienating family property for his own purposes is not a topic dealt with, as far as I am aware, by any texts of Hindu law or by the commentators. No express authority on the subject can therefore be found in the Hindu law books, and it is questionable whether an alienation by a co-parcener of his undivided share and interest was recognised by Hindu jurists. As observed by the Judicial Committee “there can be little doubt that all such alienations, whether voluntary or compulsory, are inconsistent with the strict theory of a joint and undivided Hindu family and the law as established in Madras and Bombay has been one of gradual growth, founded upon the equity which a purchaser for value has to be allowed to stand in his vendor’s shoes and work out his rights by means of a partition” Suraj Bunsi Koer vs. Sheo Persad I.L.R. 5 Calc. 148.”

The learned Judge further goes on to state the law in the following terms:

“A co-parcener may profess to alienate either his undivided share in the whole of the family property or his undivided share in some specified portion of the family property-as in the present case-or the whole of a specified portion of the family property-as in the case in Venkatachella Pillai vs. Chinnaiya Mudaliar 5 M.H.C.R. 166. The same thing may take place in the case of involuntary sales also. In all these cases, the sale operates upon the interest and share of the transferor as the same existed at the date of the transfer and the transferee must work out the transfer by bringing a suit for ascertaining what the share and interest of the transferor was at the date of the transfer. Such a suit is not technically a suit for partition and the decree which he may obtain enforcing the transfer, either in whole or in part, by a partition of the family property will not by itself break up the joint ownership of the members of the family in the remaining property, nor the corporate character of the family.”

We, however, notice also the following:

“The claim of a transferee from a coparcener to work out the transfer is no doubt an equitable claim in the sense that he must be a transferee for value and in cases where the transfer relates to a specific portion of the family property, he has no legal right, any more than his transferor himself, to insist on that specific portion being allotted to the share of the vendor. Being a purchaser for value he will have an equity to have such portion or so much thereof as is practicable so allotted, if that can be done without prejudice to the interests of the other sharers. In any suit which may be brought by him to enforce the sale, all the members of the family should be joined as parties as in a partition suit, the subject-matter of the suit being the family property as it existed at the date of the transfer.”

In fact the Court in Venkatachela Pillay vs. Chinnaiya Mudallar, (1870)5M.H.C.R. 166 (1870) held as under:

“…..And the contention on behalf of the appellant is that one co-parcener cannot object to a sale of a family property made by another co-parcener when the portion of property sold is unquestionably less in quantity and value than the share of the co-parcener making the sale in the entire property.

We are of the opinion that this is an untenable objection. The decision of this Court as to the right of a co-parcener to alienate his vested interest in the property held in co-parcenery do not go beyond establishing the validity of an alienation to the extent of the coparcener’s share in the particular property which is the subject of the alienation. And they are founded upon the principle that each co-parcener has a vested present undivided estate in his share, which he may at any time convert into an estate in severalty by a compulsory or voluntary partition, and that such estate is transferrible like any other interest in property. Further than this the title of the 1st defendant under the alienation in the present case cannot, we think, be carried…

xxx xxx xxx

By the sale in the present case therefore the vendor, Subbaraya, could not in our judgment transfer to the 1st defendant’s father a valid title to any specific portion of the joint-family property but only to his beneficial estate as an undivided co-parcener with the incidental right of partition, and it follows that the 1st defendant is not entitled to more than the moiety of the village lands which were alone the subject of the contract of sale.”

It appears there is no uniformity in regard to the power of a coparcener to sell his undivided interest.In Sidheshwar Mukherjee vs. Bh.ubanesh.war Prasad Narain Singh and others, AIR 1953 SC 487 we notice the following :

“9. It is true that under the Mitakshara law, as it is administered in the State of Bihar, no coparcener can alienate, even for valuable consideration, his undivided interest in the joint property without the consent of his coparceners; but although a coparcener is incompetent to alienate voluntarily his undivided coparcenary interest, it is open to the creditor, who has obtained a decree again him personally, to attach and put up to sale this undivided interest, and after purchase to have the interest separated by a suit for partition.”

In M.V.S. Manikayala Rao vs. Nara simha swami and others, AIR 1966 SC 470 a case which arose against the impugned order of the High Court of Andhra Pradesh, it involved an auction sale therein the Court held as follows:

“….Now it is well settled that the purchaser of a coparcener’s undivided interest in the joint family property is not entitled to possession of what he has purchased. His only right is to sue for partition of the property and ask for allotment to him of that which on partition might be found to fall to the share of the coparcener who share he had purchased…. “

122. The view of Justice B ashy am Ayyangar has also been approved by a Full Bench of five learned Judges of the High Court in K. Peramanayakam Pillai vs. S .T. Sivaraman and others, AIR 1952 Madras 419.

123. Thus, in the case of an alienation by a Hindu, even if it is of a specific property belonging to the joint property, it would be dealt with on an equitable basis, should the alienee bring an action to enforce the same in a properly constituted Suit. The conclusion we would arrive at is that the sale of such a right even over specific immovable property by a coparcener in a Mitakshara Hindu Joint Family does take effect in law where it is permitted and it would not be a case of a void transaction. The purpose of undertaking this discussion is to appreciate the law relating to the power of the coparcener to transfer specific items even if there has been no partition in the sense of a division of title so that we are in a better position to appreciate the question as to whether in a case where a Hindu executes a Will prior to the Hindu Succession Act could, he, by a Will, after a division is brought about in the family bequeath specific immovable property.

124. In order to understand this problem in its proper perspective, we must advert to certain vital dimensions. The real principle on the basis of which the interest of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family could not be the subject matter of a valid bequest was that the bequest would come into collision with the right to claim property by survivorship vested in the other coparceners upon their birth. Thus, it is a case of a prior right taking precedence over the bequest which can come into force only not from the date of the making of the Will but upon the death of the Testator. This distinction, has apparently allowed courts to recognise an inter-vivos alienation which is possible only when the coparcener is alive of his interest in the Joint Hindu Family as it does not involve a conflict between the right by survivorship and rights sought to be created by the coparcener. However once there is a division, then right by survivorship ceases and there can be objection to said principle applying to a bequest of a specified immovable property. In fact, the case of a will made after division of specific immovable property stands on a different footing and the objection that the sale is by a coparcener when the joint family exists does not hold good.

125. The second point of distinction which we may notice is that as noted by Justice Bashyam Ayyangar in Aiyyagari Venkataramayya and another (supra) is that, the right was recognised as an equitable right in favour of an alienee who has purported to purchase the property for valuable consideration. A bequest may be subject to an onerous condition and the rights of the Legatee may become subject to the Doctrine of Election. A bequest, on the other hand, may involve no liability for the Legatee, in which case, he may not bear resemblance to an alienee under the inter-vivos transfer who purchases property for valuable consideration.

126. At least, as an equitable claim, can not appellants enforce their right and claim to be allotted the items on the basis that they could be allotted to the share of the Testator as in the case of a transferee from a Hindu of specific immovable property, even when the joint family continues to exist? We have noticed that the law does not render such transferee helpless. No doubt, one of the conditions which has been evolved in by Justice Bashyam Ayyangar in the decision in Aiyyagari Venkataramayya (supra) is that all the sharers must be on the party array. In this case, the said requirement is fulfilled as they are represented as Defendants 4 to 11 is O.S. No. 89 of 1983. No doubt, we notice that another requirement, in such a case, would be that all the properties of the joint family are scheduled. This requirement is not seen fulfilled and the frame of the Suit is based on exclusive title of the plaintiff and Defendants 1 to 3 which is based on bequest.

127. About the extent of property belonging to the family, it is relevant to notice that PW1 has deposed, inter alia, as follow:My brother Baktachalam gave an extent of 750 acres of land in Kollegal Village, Satyamangalam to his father in the name of Government assignment in the year 1944. Those 750 acres of land are under our family possession. My father had purchased an extent of 150 acres of land in Coimbatore from 1932 to 1958 in my name and Rama thai. More than 1,000 acres of land were purchased from 1944 to 1958 in their family. V. Rangaswami Naidu is having right upon 1,000 acres of land purchased in Kollagal, Kollangodu, Coimbatore and Tanjore. I know that R. Krishnammal has right over 1,000 acres of land. R. Krishnammal did not claim share in 1000 acres of land in Al. When we settled the matter and gave the share to R. Krishnammal, we did not take into account of an extent of 1,400 acres of land. R. Krishnammal did not claim share as she is having right over more than 700 acres of land.Above is the picture regarding the availability of the family properties. They are of course not scheduled in the Plaint. We are not exactly aware of the value of these lands.

128. We would certainly think that the Legatee under the Will, left behind by a Hindu after there is division in the family status in regard to specific properties belonging to the family, would indeed have rights qua the property but limited to the share of the Testator. It cannot be a principle of law in the region of controversy that a man cannot ordinarily transfer a right greater than what he himself has. Even under the Indian Succession Act, under Section 59, there could be no prohibition in V. Ranagaswami Naidu bequeathing his share, if there was division. We have already noticed that in a bequest, the equitable consideration available to a transferee by an Intxa-vliros transaction, wherein he has paid valuable consideration, may not apply. But this cannot mean that, if everything else is proved, the legatee should be left remediless. We did toy with the idea of considering holding in favour of the appellants even treating it to be an exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India in the special facts of this case as brought out by the testimony of PW1 as regards the inequity involved. No doubt, we find the frame of the Suit hardly helpful to the appellants. But having regard to the fact that the appellants must fail otherwise, we need not explore this matter further.

DOES THE WILL EFFECT A DIVISION?

129. There is an argument raised by the appellants that if no division was caused by Bl still the terms of the Will achieve the same result. In other words in so far as Rangaswami Naidu had in the Will indicated not only about there being a partition in 1932 but he has also stated that he continues to be a divided member till the date of the Will and he has already made an open declaration of his divided status division also flows as an inevitable result of his Will. The Will causes the disruption and therefore the respondents who are the legal representatives of Lakshmiah Naidu have no claim in law under the doctrine of survivorship. We do not think there is any merit in this argument. It may be true that though no issue as such was raised, the trial court was indeed called upon by the parties to answer this question. What is involved essentially is the reading the contents of the will so as to ascertain whether it has the impact of being the declaration of an unequivocal intent of the coparcener to separate.

130. Shri Guru Krishnakumar, learned counsel would however point out that even proceeding on the basis that there is a Will and its terms amount to a declaration since Rangaswami Naidu died on 1.6.1955 and the Will saw the light of the day as far as other coparcener is concerned only in the course of proceeding under Section 145 of the CrPC which took place much after the death, when succession opened to the estate of Rangaswami, the will not having been communicated to Lakshmiah Naidu the requirement in law was not fulfilled.

In order that Section 3(2) of the 1937 Act applies, V. Rangaswami Naidu must have died intestate, leaving behind an interest in the Hindu Undivided Family. What the appellants are calling upon us to do is to take a part of the Will which allegedly contains the declaration which in law, effects division. But if the Will is to be acted upon, then the conundrum which exists is, it could not be said that V. Rangaswami Naidu died intestate qua the properties which are the plaint scheduled properties. In fact, Section 5 of the 1937 Act has defined the words “die intestate” to mean that “a person shall be deemed to die intestate in respect of all property of which he has not made a testamentary deposition which is capable of take effect”. On the one hand, the appellants would require this Court to hold that BlO-Will should govern the rights of the parties and that it is capable of taking effect. If it is not found capable of taking effect, the cause of action would fail. If, therefore, we proceed on the basis that there is a will Section 3(2) did not apply, and R. Krishnammal, the widow, would get no right under Section 3(2). If she did not get any right under the Act with regard to the properties governed by the Will, then, the law relating to survivorship, under which Lakshmiah Naidu would succeed to the estate of his brother, would spring into being immediately on the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu on 01.06.1955. Could it be, however, that it is possible for the appellants to contend on the Doctrine of Relating Back propounded in Addagada Raghavamma (supra) that by virtue of the contents of the Will, a division is achieved upon Lakshmiah Naidu becoming aware of the Will even after the death of his brother during the proceedings under Section 145, which is an admitted position, and its effect being felt from 10.05.1955 when the Will was made and, therefore, by this reasoning, on 10.05.1955, which is before the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu, a division is effected and, therefore, the Will becomes valid? In other words, look to the Will, to find whether its contents amount to a declaration causing a division in law from 10.5.1955 and since the Will speaks from the date of the death of the Testator on 1.6.1955, the Will becomes a valid Will?

We may also, in this regard, turn to the contents of the Will, which we have already extracted in paragraph-77 hereinbefore. It will be noted that the Will starts off with the statement by the Testator that he owned the properties which included properties allotted in a partition and also which he acquired by independent purchases. Thereafter, he states that he had been a divided member since 1932 onwards. None of these statements would constitute a declaration. We have found that the case of partition in 1932 and independent purchases have been found against the appellants by three courts. Thereafter, there is only the statement that he has, in order to avoid any uncertainties, made an open declaration of his divided status today’ . It may be difficult for us to accept this statement as a declaration sufficient in law to cause a division. However even for a moment that it would work out as a declaration, we would think that the law laid down by this Court in Addagada Raghavamma (supra), may pose obstacles insuperable in nature, for the appellants.

While it may be true that under the Doctrine of Relation Back and proceeding on the basis that the contents, as noted in the Will, amounted to a clear declaration to separate and that it would have effect from 10.05.1955, we cannot be oblivious to the creation of the vested rights. If the matter is to be governed under Section 3(2) of the 1937 Act, as already noted, it must be a case where V. Rangaswami Naidu died intestate. Therefore, if we proceed on the basis that there is a Will as indeed we must to accept the case of the appellants, Section 3(2) will not apply. If Section 3(2) does not apply, the claim to the property by survivorship, would arise, which would be fatal to the appellants case, for the reason put forth by Shri Guru Krishnakumar, learned Senior Counsel, as noted above. That is to say, in the facts of this case, in view of the division being communicated through the Will only after the succession had opened, and even allowing for the division to have effect from 10.5.1955 when the will was made, the vested right of Lakshmiah Naidu to claim by survivorship would spring into existence on 01.06.1955 when his brother died and the subsequent communication based on the Will cannot take away vested right which became available proceeding on the basis of the Will relating to the plaint schedule properties (see in this regard para 34 of Addagada Raghavamma (supra).

DATE AND CONTENTS OF Bl: EFFECT OF NON PRODUCTION OF LETTER DATED 11.5.1955 AND 16.5.1955

131. Coming to the actual question therefore whether Bl was in fact issued, whether its contents amount to a declaration as required to create a division, and finally whether it was communicated to Lakshmiah Naidu we find as follows:

132. The case of the appellants is that Bl is issued on 10.5.1955. Bl is a declaration published in a newspaper. Bl as noted by the first appellate Court, is as follows:

“I have been a divided member from my brother Sri R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu ever since 1932…. I also hereby do make a declaration of my divided and separate status”.

133. The further case of the appellants is that the requirement of communication to the other coparceners is complied with as is proved by the fact that having received Bl on the very next day Lakshmiah Naidu issued communication dated 11.5.1955 wherein he purported to dispute the allegation in Bl that there was a partition in the year 1932. The case of the appellants is further premised on the act of Rangaswami Naidu in sending a rebuttal, as it were, to the communication sent by Lakshmiah Naidu dated 11.5.1955 which he sent on 16.5.1955. Both the trial court and the High Court have however found it to be fatal to the appellants case that the appellants have not produced the said communication dated 11.5.1955 and 16.5.1955. The respondents also would contend that the High Court was right in its conclusion in that regard. On the other hand, the appellants would point out that the court must not lose sight of the fact that the communication issued by Lakshmiah Naidu dated 11.5.1955 is produced as Exhibit (43) and the communication dated 16.5.1955 was produced as Exhibit 44 in proceeding under Section 145 of the CRPC There is reference to these documents in the order passed by the Magistrate which is marked as B2 in this case. Moreover, respondents complain about absence of pleading to the effect that Bl was issued causing a division even by way of refuting the case set up in OS 649 of 1985 that Rangaswami Naidu died joint.

WHETHER THERE IS LACK OF PLEADING ABOUT Bl CAUSING A DIVISION IN THE JOINT FAMILY?

134. In O.S. No. 649 of 1985, filed by the respondents, it is averred that the plaint scheduled properties were joint family properties of the two brothers and it is further averred that there was no partition between them and they were living as joint family till the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu in 1955. In paragraph-5 of the Plaint, it is specifically averred that, till the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu, he and his brother constituted a joint family and there was no division in status between them, and on the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu, the surviving coparcener took all the properties by survivorship. In the Written Statement, which is filed on the appellants side (viz., the Second Defendant), we notice the following pleading in paragraph-3 of the Plaint:

“3. R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu and V. Rangaswami Naidu were brothers. They were divided and living separately. They were cultivating their lands separately. The claim of the plaintiffs that R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu and V. Rangaswami Naidu were living as joint family and that there was no division in status till the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu is false. The joint family status between the brothers was duly disrupted and put an end to. There was also division of properties, and each was enjoying his respective properties separately. V. Rangaswami Naidu also purchased lands independently.” (Emphasis supplied)

135. No doubt, in O.S. No. 89 of 1983, what is averred is that the properties belonged to one V. Rangaswami Naidu. It was further averred in paragraph-9 of the Plaint that the brothers had divided the properties as early as in 1932. Out of the nine items scheduled in the Plaint (viz., O.S. No. 89 of 1983), Item Nos. 1 to 3 and Item Nos. 6 to 9 were allotted to the share of V. Rangaswami Naidu and were in his possession. Item Nos. 4 and 5 were purchased by V. Rangaswami Naidu long after the partition and belonged to him absolutely. We must also not lose sight of the fact that the averments in the later Suit (viz. O.S. No. 89 of 1983) , makes reference to the allegations in O.S. No. 649 of 1985 (the number of the Suit after renumbering) . Still further, we notice that when the issues were framed, the first issue was whether the Will executed by V. Rangaswami Naidu is true and valid and whether it came into force. A separate issue (Issue no. 2) was framed as to whether there was an oral partition. It is also noticed that in the discussion, the matter was debated before the Trial Court on the basis that by the publication of notice on 12.05.1955 in “Navva India” newspaper, there was division of the property.

136. We have already noticed the pleadings of the Second Defendant in the Written Statement in O.S. No. 649 of 1985. Both the Suits were tried together. It has been averred that the brothers were divided and living separately. The claim of the respondents that there was no division in status till the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu, has been specifically pleaded to be false. Thejoint family status, it has been stated, was duly disrupted and put an end to.

137. We would think that, in the facts of this case, the principle that no amount of evidence can be looked into, if there is no pleading, is in apposite. As to how the joint family status was disrupted or as to whether there was no division in status, is essentially a matter of evidence. The mere fact that it is not specifically averred, as to the mode by which the division was brought about, in our view, is not fatal to the appellants case, if it is otherwise established.

WHETHER THE CONTENTS OF Bl AMOUNT TO A DECLARATION TO EFFECT DIVISION

138. That there was no oral partition is found unassailable. Therefore, the statement in Bl, about the same, needs to be ignored being incorrect but the last sentence in our view is capable of standing as a stand alone statement. The use of the word also’ appears to be deliberate. It would also probablise that there was legal advice which preceded both the making the Will and the drafting of the Notice. In B13, the executor has spoken about V. Rangaswami Naidu, expressing his desire to execute the Will on two or three occasions and about their being legal consultation. V. Rangaswami Naidu was an educated man. An Ex. MLC. He was affluent. Setting up of the case of oral partition, was also on the wings of alleged separate purchases. There was a case that the brothers exchanged list of properties. He may have entertained the idea that what had happened, did constitute a case for oral partition. If we give credit to V. Rangaswami Naidu, to have the knowledge that a division through notice declaring intent to separate, was indispensable to the validity of the Will, as also the use of the word also’, it is capable of being understood as the declaration sufficient in law to cause disruption in the joint family status.

139. The arguments of Mr. Gurukrishna Kumar, learned Senior Counsel, that the sentence having regard to its grammatical implications must persuade us to link it with the earlier partition, alleged in the year 1932,does not appeal to us. We should also not be unmindful of the fact that BlO-Will contains the statement about having made a notice. As long as the coparcener wishes to separate, he is not required to give any reason to separate.

WHETHER THERE WAS COMMUNICATION TO THE OTHER COPARCENER

140. Now, we come to the aspect as to whether Bl was communicated. Bl has been marked in the Trial Court as dated 12.05.1955. The entire case of the appellants is that the notice was issued on 10.05.1955 and it was published in a newspaper “Navva India” as, admittedly, there is no case for the appellants that the intention to separate, was given by way of a notice directly to V. Lakshmiah Naidu. It was the case of the appellants that noticing the notice in the newspaper, Lakshmiah Naidu responded by issuing a communication dated 11.05.1955, disputing the partition. In fact, it was also the case of the appellants that Lakshmiah Naidu revealed his mind to be that for bringing about disruption, that V. Rangaswami Naidu had to communicateto the other coparceners. Still further, the appellant’s case is sought to be built around the communication, by V. Rangaswami Naidu on 16.05.1955 to Lakshmiah Naidu reiterating contents of Bl.

141. We have noticed that the contents of Bl, having regard to the last part, would be sufficient to cause a division in the status of the joint family. The question is whether it was communicated, as is required in law. On the one hand, the communication set up by the appellants dated 11.05.1955 and 16.05.1955 are not produced. This shortcoming is sought to be overcome by the appellants by relying upon the case set up by ‘A’ Party, as revealed in B2. It is the order passed by the Magistrate under Section 145 of the CrPC. We do notice, as far as the Notice issued by V. Rangaswami Naidu, it is a notice in a newspaper. It may not be as difficult in procuring a copy of the newspaper as it might be to procure the private communications, as contained in the letters dated 11.05.1955 and 16.05.1955. We do notice that the letters dated 10.5.1955, 11.05.1955 and 16.05.1955 have been purportedly marked as B42, B43 andB44, respectively, in proceedings which culminated in B2. The pleadings in support of these documents are indeed adverted to in B2, order passed by the Magistrate.

142. Regarding B2-Order, passed under Section 145 of Cr.PC a contention is raised that it is not relevant under Section 40 to 43 of the Evidence Act. This question is not seen raised in the courts below. It may be true that Section 40 deals with previous judgments which would constitute a bar to the fresh proceedings and B2 is, therefore, not relevant under Section 40 of the Evidence Act. Section 41 also deals with judgments rendered in probate, matrimonial, admiralty or insolvency jurisdiction, which has the effect mentioned in Section 41 of the Evidence Act. It is clearly in applicable to the facts of the case. Section 42 deals with decisions being relevant if they relate to matters of public nature relevant to the inquiry. It is also not relevant. Section 43 reads as follows:

“43. Judgments, etc., other than those mentioned in sections 40 to 42, when relevant.-Judgments, orders or decrees, other than those mentioned in sections 40,41 and 42, are irrelevant, unless the existence of such judgment, order or decree, is a fact in issue, or is relevant under some other provisions of this Act.”

143. In this regard, we have scanned B2-Order. The relevant part where the pleading is set out is as follows:

“The deceased declared his divided status by a notice in the (Nava India’ dated 10.5.1955 (Exhibit P42) . This attracted the attention of B Party No. 1 who wrote to him on 11.5.55 (Exhibit P43) that all of them were undivided and that if the deceased wanted to get divided he had to intimate it to the other copartners. The deceased replied on 15.5.55 by Exhibit P44 that the stand taken by B Party No. 1 was not correct. This was acknowledged by a B Party No. 1 on 17.5.55 (Exhibit P45).

144. What is conspicuous by its absence in B2 -Order is the response of the B Party in regard to these documents. It is not a case where there is reference to the pleading of the B Party, viz., the Lakshmiah branch that they admit the issuance of B42, B43 and B44. But there is no denial either. B2 would show that there was a case for the A Party on the lines we have indicated. Except for the discrepancy in the date of B1′ being 12.5.1955 whereas B42 is dated 10.5.1955, there is consistency in the case set up by the appellants.

145. The question relating to relevancy of judgments has been considered by a Bench of this Court in State of Bihar vs. Radha Krishna Singh and Others, 1983 (3) SCC 118. The Court took the view that reliance cannot be placed on judgment based on Section 13 of the Evidence Act if it is not falling under Sections 40 to 42 . Thereafter the Court held as follows:

“129. In Gadadhar Chowdhury vs. Sarat Chandra Chakravarty [AIR 1941 Cal 193 : (1940) 44 Cal WN 935 : 195 IC 412 : 72 Cal LJ 320] it was held that findings in judgments not inter partes are not admissible in evidence. In this connection a Division Bench of the Calcutta High Court observed as follows :

“Though the recitals and findings in a judgment not inter partes are not admissible in evidence, such a judgment and decree are, in our opinion, admissible to prove the fact that a decree was made in a suit between certain parties and for finding out for what lands the suit had been decreed.

130. This, in our opinion, is the correct legal position regarding the admissibility of judgments not inter partes.”

We do notice that the second of A’ party in fact was the executor of the Will under which the appellants claim.

146. Interestingly, the respondents have produced as A109 which has been marked as the copy of the type set in the revision before the High Court (the revision is filed against order B2 passed in Section 145 proceedings). It is shown wrongly marked as the order in the proceeding. Therein we notice that the contents include apart from the impugned order (B2) the respondents documents. Among the contents the Exhibits filed on behalf of the B party are produced. It also contains the evidence of L. Venkatapathy who is none other than PW1 in this case. Therein, there is no mention about B42, B43 and B44 in his examination. In his cross examination after stating that he found his signature (Testator) in every page of [Exhibit B68] , the Will he deposed, he did not know if his father hadreplied to the publication in Navva India’. We do not know what prevented the plaintiff in O.S. No. 83 of 1989 from producing the documents B42, B43 and B44 which would have also been available as the documents filed by the B party has been produced by B party as part of A109. There is no finding in B2 about B42 publication, B43 or B44.

147. During the hearing, it was pressed before us by the respondents that Bl is dated 12.05.1955 and if it is 12.05.1955, the very edifice of the appellant’s case would fall to the ground as then it would be impossible to support the position that in response to the notice which is published on 12.05.1955, the reply could be given on the previous date, i.e., on 11.05.1955 by Lakshmiah Naidu. It is here that the non-production of the letters dated 11.05.1955 and 16.05.1955, are sought to be emphasized. As noted, we did call for the records to verify whether marking of the documents Bl dated 12.05.1955 was a mistake, as pointed out by Mr. C.A. Sundaram, learned Senior Counsel or it did reflect the ground reality. We find from Bl that Notice is published in the newspaper which is dated 12.05.1955. Therefore, the marking of the document Bl, as dated 12.05.1955, is not a mistake. What are the consequences that flow from the said finding? One way to look at would be that since the notice containing the declaration, is published in a newspaper only on 12.05.1955, the case of the appellants that Lakshmiah Naidu gave a reply on 11.05.1955, on noticing the notice, cannot be accepted. If the same is not accepted, then, the question of V. Rangaswami Naidu, sending a rejoinder, as it were also, would not arise.

148. We have considered the contents of the Will. There is a reference to the publication of the Notice on the said date. The Will is dated 10.05.1955. It appears to us quite clear that the Will would not have been written on 10.05.1955. It is, no doubt, executed on 10.05.1955, which we have already found. Having regards to the details in the Will and the other circumstances, we are inclined to believe that it would have been drafted earlier. Equally, publication of amatter in a newspaper would have been arranged earlier. But what is important is, not merely the intention of the Testator as a coparcener to declare his mind to the other coparcener to separate, and even have it set-out in the Will, and further even going a step further, getting it published, but it must be proved further that, before the Testator passed away, the matter contained in Bl was known to the other coparcener, viz. , Lakshmiah Naidu. This requirement is indispensable as held in Addagada Raghavamma and others (supra) . In this regard, we notice that DW1, the witness on behalf of the appellants, has this to say:

“On 11.05.1955, Lakshmiah Naidu gave a reply in response to Bl. The same is marked as B44 in CrPC 145 Proceedings. He clearly admitted about the division in status made between Rangaswami Naidu and Lakshmiah Naidu.”

149. This statement goes against the appellants case. It appears to be the case of R. Krishnammal and the Executor in Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings as what is stated is that on seeing B42 (which is marked as the ‘Notice’ published on 10.05.1955), Lakshmiah Naidu sentB43 stating that there was no partition between them, for which, the deceased sent B44 reply. Thereafter, DW1 says that on 10.05.1955, on publication of advertisement in “Navva India”, he came to know that one objection advertisement was published on the very next date.

150. Let us see what PW1 said, who was 26 years of age in 1955 and who has also given evidence in Section 145 CrPC proceedings. If there is a clear admission by him, establishing that the declaration was known to Lakshmiah Naidu before the death of V. Rangaswami Naidu, the appellants may succeed on this point subject to the contradiction being resolved about the date of Bl. After stating that, on 10.05.1955, V. Rangaswami Naidu issued Notice in India newspaper, as the partition was done, and stating that, V. Rangaswami Naidu fictionally made such paper advertisement, he, thereafter, says that he came to know about the newspaper advertisement and Will, only in Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings. Thereafter, he says, on 12.05.1955, V. Rangaswami Naidu gave one paper publication in “Navva India”. But again, he says he came to know regarding the same during Section 145 proceedings. He further says that his father did not ask V. Rangaswami Naidu as to why he gave Bl publication. The witness says, he is not aware why Bl publication was given. Thereafter, he says, he does not know now whether the newspaper advertisement was filed by his paternal small Uncle in Section 145 proceedings. It has been mentioned in Al that his father made advertisement in respondent to Bl. He further says that his father may be given that advertisement (Being translation from Tamil, it does not obviously do justice. We read it as “his father may have give that advertisement”) . He says that the advertisement given by his paternal small Uncle and his father reply advertisement was filed in Al-Suit and he says that it is not correct to say that his father had admitted that a division in shares and his father gave newspaper advertisement as the properties were not partitioned by metes and bound. He says that it has been mentioned in Al (Plaint in O.S. No. 71 of 1958) , as Rangaswami Naidu gave a reply on 16.05.1955 to his father. He thenadmits that it is correct to say that those are marked as B42, B43 and B44, respectively, in ( as’ sic) Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings and he gave the deposition in those proceedings. We would think that this is a vital piece of evidence which may show that B43 is the communication dated 11.05.1955 which must be taken to be sent by his father to which V. Rangaswami Naidu respondend on 16.05.1955. This should mean that the publication on 10.05.1955 became known to Lakshmiah Naidu, as set-out in B2. The exact contents of B43 are not available.

151. When PW1 was examined in Section 145 of the CrPC proceedings, in the chief examination, he does not say a word about B42, B43 or B44. Then, in cross-examination, he says that he does not know if his father had replied to the publication in “Navva India”.

152. We must notice that the High Court has proceeded on the basis of the inconsistency in the matter. There is no pleading in regard to B42, B43 or B44 in O.S. NO. 89 of 1983. In answer to the plaintiffs case, based on Bl, which is dated 12.05.1955, the High Court finds that the First Defendant set-up a case that the Notice was published on 10.05.1955. The High Court also noticed the non-production of the communications dated 11.05.1955 and 16.05.1955.

153. However, there is no case that the Notice was published on two days, viz., on 10.05.1955 and 12.05.1955. What is evidence produced before the Court is Bl, which is dated 12.05.1955. If that is so, despite the inferences one could possibly draw from the deposition of PW1, it would bring it into collision with the evidence before us. If we proceed on the basis of Bl, which is dated 12.05.1955, then, the reply being sent on 11.05.1955, becomes impossible. If there is no reply sent on 11.05.1955, then, it will not be possible to attribute communication of the Notice to separate to Lakshmiah Naidu. In such circumstances, we would agree with the High Court that the case relating to Bl, though there is a publication made, we cannot attribute knowledge of the same to Lakshmiah Naidu, before the death of his brother. We are not, for a moment, holding that a Notice in a newspaper cannot serve as a Notice by a coparcener to effect division. However, merely causing a Notice to be published, without there being evidence to show that the intended recipient became aware of it, may not suffice. Though a Notice in a newspaper is purported to serve as Notice to the general public, what is required is Notice to the concerned coparcener [See paragraphs-28 and 32 of Addagada Raghavamma (supra), extracted by us in paragraph-89 hereinbefore]. There cannot be a presumption that a person has read a particular newspaper, and even more importantly, that he has read the Notice. Even the case of the appellants appears to be that, on seeing the Notice dated 10.05.1955, the communication dated 11.05.1955 was sent by Lakshmiah Naidu, which we have found unacceptable, having regard to Bl being dated 12.05.1955. The importance of the reply dated 11.05.1955 was that it would establish knowledge of the Notice by Lakshmiah Naidu. There is no evidence that the Notice published in the newspaper dated 12.05.1955 was known to Lakshmiah Naidu before his death. Since there was no division brought about by V. Rangaswami Naidu before his death in view of the above discussion, the Will would be invalid and therefore it would be the end of the road for the appellants. It is to be remembered that Rangaswami Naidu died on 1.6.1955, which was before the enactment of Hindu Succession Act, 1956. Thus, when he died, he left behind an interest in the Hindu joint family. When succession opened to his estate, it is therefore, the provisions of Section 3(2) of the Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act, 1937 which apply. A limited estate in other words sprung into being in favour of R. Krishnammal, his widow. This estate would bloom under Section 14 (1) of the H.S.A. into an absolute estate. When she compromised in OS 71 of 1958 giving up her rights over the property which included the plaint scheduled property in these cases, it conferred absolute rights in favour of the Lakshmiah Naidu branch. We again reiterate the effect of the death of Rangaswami Naidu being before the Hindu Succession Act came into force to be that it would deprive persons of rights available in respect of a Hindu who dies intestate after the Act came into force.

Now assuming that there was a valid Will, that is, there was a division effected in the family, we will consider whether the life estate under the Will attract Section 14(1) or Section 14(2) of the Hindu Succession Act.

SECTION 14 (1) VERSUS 14 (2) OF HINDU SUCCESSION ACT 1956

154. Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act 1956 reads as follows:

“4. Property of a female Hindu to be her absolute property.-

(1) Any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as full owner thereof and not as a limited owner. Explanation.-In this sub-section, “property” includes both movable and immovable property acquired by a female Hindu by inheritance or devise, or at a partition, or in lieu of maintenance or arrears of maintenance, or by gift from any person, whether a relative or not, before, at or after her marriage, or by her own skill or exertion, or by purchase or by prescription, or in any other manner whatsoever, and also any such property held by her as stridhana immediately before the commencement of this Act.

(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall apply to any property acquired by way of gift or under a will or any other instrument or under a decree or order of a civil court or under an award where the terms of the gift, will or other instrument or the decree, order or award prescribe a restricted estate in such property.”

155. Not only is the interpretation to be placed on Section 14 not res Integra, it has engaged the attention of courts, including this Court, on a large number of occasions. A large number of decisions has been cited before us. The appellants would contend that in the facts of this case the provisions of Section 14(2) would apply whereas the branch of Lakshmiah Naidu would invite us to uphold the view of the High Court that Section 14(1) applies.

156. If Section 14(1) applies, it has the following impact: The estate which R. Krishnammal had in the properties including the plaint schedule properties would become absolute. Then, the very edifice of the claim made by the appellants who were legatees under the Will conferred with absolute rights on the death of R. Krishnammal would collapse and they would have no right. If on the other hand, Section 14(2) applies, then, again on the basis that there is a will left behind by Rangaswami Naidu which is otherwise valid and genuine, the appellants could claim title as remaindermen.

157. Before we consider the case law, it is necessary to deal with the contention of the appellants that R. Krishnammal did not set up a case under Section 14(1) and that she claimed only under the will in OS No. 71 of 1958 we need only refer to para 11 of OS No. 71 of 1958. The same reads as under:

“11. The plaintiff however further states that even on the very case set up by R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu in the 145 proceedings and the admission made by him, her rights are even better and as a coparcener she is entitled under the combined operation of Acts XVIII of 1937 and XXX of 1956 to an absolute state in one half of the joint properties and to demand partition and possession of her share. Defendants 1 to 4 are entitled to the other half share. The plaintiff is unable to specify exactly all the properties in the possession of the defendants 1 to 4 but as far as she has been able to do so, she has set them out in Schedule II. The plaintiff craves leave to add to them as and when she gets better particulars. The plaintiff also prays that the defendants 1 to 4 might be called upon to make a full and true disclosure of the joint family properties in their possession.”

It is clear that she expressly referred to the Hindu Succession Act also.

158. Mst. Karmi vs. Amru and Others, (1972) 4 SCC 86 is a judgment which is rendered by three learned judges. It was a case where a Will was executed revoking the earlier will by which a Hindu bequeathed his entire estate on his widow during her life, and thereafter, the same was to devolve on his collaterals. The Will was dated November 13, 1937. This Court held that the widow having succeeded on the strength of the Will could not claim any right over and above what was given to her under the Will. It was held that the life estate could not become absolute estate under the Hindu Succession Act 1956.

159. V. Tulasamma vs Sesha Reddy, (1977) 3 SCC 99 is a Judgment rendered by a Bench of three learned Judges. It was a case where the husband of the appellant therein died in a state of jointness with his brother in the year 1939. She obtained a Decree for maintenance. This was followed by execution proceedings wherein an out of court of settlement took place under which the appellant was allotted scheduled properties which was certified on 30th July, 1949. However, it was a limited interest with no power of alienation. The suit out of which an appeal arose was filed by the respondent impugning an alienation made by the appellant. On these facts, we notice the following principles have been laid down:

“62. (1) The Hindu female’s right to maintenance is not an empty formality or an illusory claim being conceded as a matter of grace and generosity, but is a tangible right against property which flows from the spiritual relationship between the husband and the wife and is recognised and enjoined by pure Shastric Hindu law and has been strongly stressed even by the earlier Hindu jurists starting from Yajnavalkya to Manu. Such a right may not be a right to property but it is a right against property and the husband has a personal obligation to maintain his wife and if he or the family has property, the female has the legal right to be maintained therefrom. If a charge is created for the maintenance of a female, the said right becomes a legally enforceable one. At any rate, even without a charge the claim for maintenance is doubtless a pre-existing right so that any transfer declaring or recognising such a right does not confer any new title but merely endorses or confirms the pre-existing rights.

(2) Section 14(1) and the Explanation thereto have been couched in the widest possible terms and must be liberally construed in favour of the females so as to advance the object of the 1956 Act and promote the socio-economic ends sought to be achieved by this long-needed legislation.

(3) Sub-section (2) of Section 14 is in the nature of a proviso and has a field of its own without interfering with the operation of Section 14(1) materially. The proviso should not be construed in a manner so as to destroy the effect of the main provision or the protection granted by Section 14(1) or in a way so as to become totally inconsistent with the main provision.

(4) Sub-section (2) of Section 14 applies to instruments, decrees, awards, gifts, etc. which create independent and new titles in favour of the females for the first time and has no application where the instrument concerned merely seeks to confirm, endorse, declare or recognise pre-existing rights. In such cases a restricted estate in favour of a female is legally permissible and Section 14(1) will not operate in this sphere. Where, however, an instrument merely declares or recognises a pre-existing right, such as a claim to maintenance or partition or share to which the female is entitled, the sub-section has absolutely no application and the female’s limited interest would automatically be enlarged into an absolute one by force of Section 14(1) and the restrictions placed, if any, under the document would have to be ignored. Thus where a property is allotted or transferred to a female in lieu of maintenance or a share at partition, the instrument is taken out of the ambit of sub-section (2) and would be governed by Section 14(1) despite any restrictions placed on the powers of the transferee.

(5) The use of express terms like property acquired by a female Hindu at a partition’ , or in lieu of maintenance’, or arrears of maintenance’, etc. in the Explanation to Section 14(1) clearly makes sub-section (2) inapplicable tothese categories which have been expressly excepted from the operation of sub-section (2) .

(6) The words ‘possessed by’ used by the legislature in Section 14(1) are of the widest possible amplitude and include the state of owning a property even though the owner is not in actual or physical possession of the same. Thus, where a widow gets a share in the property under a preliminary decree before or at the time when the 1956 Act had been passed but had not been given actual possession under a final decree, the property would be deemed to be possessed by her and by force of Section 14(1) she would get absolute interest in the property. It is equally well settled that the possession of the widow, however, must be under some vestige of a claim, right or title, because the section does not contemplate the possession of any rank trespasser without any right or title.

(7) That the words restricted estate’ used in Section 14(2) are wider than limited interest as indicated in Section 14(1) and they include not only limited interest, but also any other kind of limitation that may be placed on the transferee.”

160. In Shakuntla Devi vs. Kamla, (2005) 5 SCC 390 again, a Bench of three learned Judges was dealing with a case where Hindu wife was given a life interest for maintenance by a Will. The Court followed the Judgment in V. Tulsamma (supra) and took the view that it is Section 14(1) which would apply. The terms of the Will inter alia provided that the property was not to be alienated and it was meant for their maintenance. This is a case where testator had three wives of which one had pre deceased him. Under the Will after the death of the second wife the life estate came to be vested with the third wife. The Will provided that the wife was provided with the property for her maintenance without any power of alienation.

161. In Sadhu Singh vs. Gurdwara Sahib Narike, AIR 2006 SC 3282 a Bench of two learned Judges had the following facts before it. The property in question was self-acquired property. It became the subject matter of the Will by a Hindu in favour of his wife on 07.10.1968. His widow gifted the property to a Gurudwara. This became subject matter of the litigation and the question arose whether the matter fell under Section 14 (1) or 14(2). This Court speaking though P.K. Balasubramaniam, J. noted the provisions of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act and held that, in the absence of the any instrument or Decree providing for it, no charge for maintenance is created in the separate property of the husband. The Court proceeded to notice the facts in V. Tulsamma (supra) and found that it was a case where the female Hindu possessed the property on the date of the Act (Hindu Succession Act, 1956) in which she had a pre-existing right which got transformed into an absolute right. Thereafter, the Court proceeded to hold as follows:

“7. Now, it is clear from the section and implicit from the decisions of this Court, that for Section 14(1) of the Act to get attracted, the property must be possessed by a female Hindu on the coming into force of the Hindu Succession Act. In Mayne on Hindu Law, 15th Edn. , p. 1171, it is stated:

“On a reading of sub-section (1) with Explanation, it is clear that wherever the property was possessed by a female Hindu as a limited estate, it would become on and from the date of commencement of the Act her absolute property. However, if she acquires property after the Act with a restricted estate, sub-section (2) applies. Such acquisition may be under the terms of a gift, will or other instrument or a decree or order or award.”

8. In Gvunma.la.pura. Taggina Matada Kotturuswami vs. Setra Veexa-wa [1959 Supp (1) SCR 968 : AIR 1959 SC 577] this Court quoted with approval (at SCR pp. 977-78) the following words of Justice P.N. Mookherjee, in Gostha Behari Bera vs. Haridas Samanta [AIR 1957 Cal 557 : 6 CWN 325] (AIR at p. 559, para 12):

“The opening words any property possessed by a female Hindu’ obviously mean that, to come within the purview of the section, the property must be in possession of the female concerned at the date of commencement of the Act. They clearly contemplate the female’s possession when the Act came into force. That possession might have been either actual or constructive or in any form, recognised by law, but, unless the female Hindu, whose limited estate in the disputed property is claimed to have been transformed into absolute estate under this particular section, was at least in such possession, taking the word possession’ in its widest connotation, when the Act came into force, the section would not apply.”

and added: (SCR p. 978)

“In our opinion, the view expressed above is the correct view as to how the words any property possessed by a female Hindu’ should be interpreted.”

9. In Eramma vs. Verrupanna [(1966) 2 SCR 626 : AIR 1966 SC 1879] this Court emphasised that the property possessed by a female Hindu as contemplated in the section is clearly the property to which she has acquired some kind of title whether before or after the commencement of the Act and negatived a claim under Section 14(1) of the Act in view of the fact that the female Hindu possessed the property on the date of the Act by way of a trespass after she had validly gifted away the property. The need for possession with a semblance of right as on the date of the coming into force of the Hindu Succession Act was thus emphasised.”

162. Still further, the Court proceeds to hold that V. Tulsamma (supra) is applicable when a female Hindu possesses the property on the date of the Act under semblance of a right whether it is limited or preexisting act. It further held that it cannot be applied ignoring the requirement of the female Hindu having to be in possession of property directly or constructively as on the date of the Act though she may acquire a right to it even after the Act. It relied on judgment of this Court in Bhura and others vs. Kashi Ram, (1994) 2 SCC 111 which was a case where the father had bequeathed the property under the Will and it is held that it is 14 (2) which will apply. Lastly, the Court also relied on Sharad Subramanyan vs. Soumi Mazumdar and others, (2006) 8 SCC 91. It is finally also necessary to notice paragraphs-11, 12, 13 and 14 of the judgment in Sadhu Singh vs. Gurdwara Sahib Narike and others, (2006) 8 SCC 75:

“11. … What emerges according to us is that any acquisition of possession of property (not right) by a female Hindu after the coming into force of the Act, cannot normally attract Section 14(1) of the Act. It would depend on the nature of the right acquired by her. If she takes it as an heir under the Act, she takes it absolutely. If while getting possession of the property after the Act, under a devise, gift or other transaction, any restriction is placed on her right, the restriction will have play in view of Section 14(2) of the Act.

12. When a male Hindu dies possessed of property after the coming into force of the Hindu Succession Act, his heirs as per the Schedule, take it in terms of Section 8 of the Act. The heir or heirs take it absolutely. There is no question of any limited estate descending to the heir or heirs. Therefore, when a male Hindu dies after 17-6-1956 leaving his widow as his sole heir, she gets the property as Class I heir and there is no limit to her estate or limitation on her title. In such circumstances, Section 14(1) of the Act would not apply on succession after the Act, or it has no scope for operation. Or, in other words, even without calling in aid Section 14(1) of the Act, she gets an absolute estate.

13. An owner of property has normally the right to deal with that property including the right to devise or bequeath the property. He could thus dispose it of by a testament. Section 30 of the Act, not only does not curtail or affect this right, it actually reaffirms that right. Thus, a Hindu male could testamentarily dispose of his property. When he does that, a succession under the Act stands excluded and the property passes to the testamentary heirs. Hence, when a male Hindu executes a will bequeathing the properties, the legatees take it subject to the terms of the will unless of course, any stipulation therein is found invalid. Therefore, there is nothing in the Act which affects the right of a male Hindu to dispose of his property by providing only a life estate or limited estate for his widow. The Act does not stand in the way of his separate properties being dealt with by him as he deems fit. His will hence could not be challenged as being hit by the Act.

14. When he thus validly disposes of his property by providing for a limited estate to his heir, the wife, the wife or widow has to take it as the estate falls. This restriction on her right so provided, is really respected by the Act. It provides in Section 14(2) of the Act, that in such a case, the widow is bound by the limitation on her right and she cannot claim any higher right by invoking Section 14(1) of the Act. In other words, conferment of a limited estate which is otherwise valid in law is reinforced by this Act by the introduction of Section 14(2) of the Act and excluding the operation of Section 14(1) of the Act, even if that provision is held to be attracted in the case of a succession under the Act. Invocation of Section 14(1) of the Act in the case of a testamentary disposition taking effect after the Act, would make Sections 30 and 14(2) redundant or otiose. It will also make redundant, the expression “property possessed by a female Hindu” occurring in Section 14(1) of the Act. An interpretation that leads to such a result cannot certainly be accepted. Surely, there is nothing in the Act compelling such an interpretation. Sections 14 and 30 both have play. Section 14(1) applies in a case where the female had received the property prior to the Act being entitled to it as a matter of right, even if the right be to a limited estate under the Mitakshara law or the right to maintenance.”

163. This Judgment came to be followed in Jagan Singh (Dead) Through Lrs. vs. Dhanwanti and another, (2012) 2 SCC 628 by a Bench of two learned Judges. It was a case where the testator executed a registered Will in respect of Plot X with the restriction that the Legatee would not have the right to transfer the property. The matter arose out of a suit for injunction restraining alienation of Property X. This Court purported to follow the judgment rendered by a Bench of three learned Judges in Navneet Lal alias Rangi vs. Gokul and others, (1976) 1 SCC 630. We have perused the Judgment in Navneet Lai alias Rangi (supra) . We notice that the question which arose for consideration was whether the Will bestowed an absolute estate or limited estate on a widow. The Court, on a construction of the Will, found that it only created a limited interest on the widow. It is noteworthy that the Court was not dealing with the question whether the limited estate would blossom into Section 14(1). In Sharad Subramanyan vs. Soumi Mazumdar and others, (2006) 8 SCC 91 the Court found that there was no material to indicate that the property was given to a Hindu female in lieu of her right to maintenance. It is a case where it is found that the wife was living with her husband, and till the Will was probated, she was enjoying the property as her own. Jupudy Pardha Sarathy vs. Pentapati Rama Krishna, (2016) 2 SCC 56 is a Judgment rendered by two learned judges. It was a case where a Hindu executed a Will in favour of his wife which she was to enjoy but after her death one of her sons was to have the property with absolute right. The question arose again whether the case attracted Section 14(1) or 14(2). The Court noticed Mst. Karmi (supra), V. Tulasamma (supra), Sadhu Singh (supra) and Sharad Subramnayan (supra) apart from Shivdev Kaur (Dead) by Lrs. (supra). Thereafter, the Court referred to R.B.S.S. Munnalal and others vs. S ,S . Rajkumar and others, AIR 1962 SC 1493 among other decisions and distinguished Sadhu Singh noting that therein the court proceeded on the basis that women had no pre-existing right in the property and therefore the life estate could not be enlarged to absolute under Section 14(1). We further notice that it was found that it was not disputed that the widow was enjoying the property by way of maintenance. The Court, therefore, distinguished Judgment of G. Rama Rao.

164. In Gumpha (Smt.) and others vs. Jai Bai, (1994) 2 SCC 511 a Bench of two learned Judges was dealing with a case where a Will was executed in the year 1941 by a Hindu giving one-half share to each of his wives for their life and the only daughter was to be the ultimate beneficiary. There was a further Will executed by one of the wives in favour of a complete stranger to the family, viz., her domestic servant. The alienation was challenged and the question arose whether the right fell under Section 14(1) or 14(2) of the Hindu Succession Act. The Court undertook an elaborate discussion and came to the conclusion that it was a case which fell under Section 14(2) of Hindu Succession Act. The Court, in fact, took the view that the Legislature did not intend to confer a higher right on a Hindu woman as against a man. This Judgment came to be considered in a later Judgment by a Bench consisting of three learned Judges, i.e., in C. Masilamani Mudaliar and others vs. Idol of Sri Swaminathaswami Swaminathaswami Thirukoil and others, AIR 1996 SC 1697/(1996) 8 SCC 525 This case also involved a Will in favour of the widow of one Somasundaram Pillai. The statements in the Will indicated Testator entertained in his mind his duty to provide maintenance to his wife. The Court undertook a review of the earlier case law. It proceeded to find that the view taken in Gumpha (Smt.) (supra) was a restrictive interpretation which did not appear to be sound in law.

165. In Gulwant Kaur and another vs. Mohinder Singh and others, AIR 1987 SC 2251 a Bench of two learned Judges referred to the elaborate correspondence between the husband and his wife and found that the case attracted Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act. It was found from perusal of the letter from the husband to his wife that the land was given in lieu of her maintenance. The Court, in fact, expressed its inability to understand the distinction between the day-to-day expenses and maintenance. The Court distinguished Eramma vs. Veerupana, AIR 1966 SC 1879. Further, the Court dealt with the argument that the decision of this Court in Bai Vajia (Dead) by Lrs. vs. Thakorbhai Chelabhai and others, AIR 1979 SC 993 must be understood as laying down that what was enlarged under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act was a womans estate under Hindu law. We notice pararagraph-8A of Gulwant Kaur (supra), which reads as follows:

“8A. Shri Tarkunde particularly relied on the following passage in Bai Vajia vs. Thakorbhai case [(1979) 3 SCC 300: AIR 1979 SC 993 :

“A plain reading of sub-section (1) makes it clear that the concerned Hindu female must have limited ownership in property, which limited ownership would get enlarged by the operation of that sub-section. If it was intended to enlarge any sort of a right which could in no sense be described as ownership, the expression and not as a limited owner’ would not have been used at all and becomes redundant, which is against the well recognised principle of interpretation of statutes that the legislature does not employ meaningless language.”

We do not understand the court as laying down that what was enlarged by subsection (1) of Section 14 into a full estate was the Hindu woman’s estate known to Hindu law. When the court uses the word “limited estate”, the words are used to connote a right in the property to which the possession of the female Hindu may be legitimately traced, but which is not a full right of ownership. If a female Hindu is put in possession of property pursuant to or in recognition of a right to maintenance, it cannot be denied that she has acquired a limited right or interest in the property and once that position is accepted, it follows that the right gets enlarged to full ownership under Section 14(1) of the Act. That seems to us to follow clearly from the language of Section 14(1) of the Act. ” (Emphasis supplied)

166. Appellants cannot derive support from the judgment reported in Gaddam Ramakrishnareddy and Others vs. Gaddam Ramireddy and Another, 2010(9) SCC 602. Therein, a gift deed was executed on 21.12.1952 creating a life estate and which no doubt was prior to the Hindu Succession Act. It was held that the right did not blossom into an absolute estate under Section 14(1). It is necessary to notice that the decision turned essentially on the consideration of the terms of gift deed and what is more important is the following finding:

“28. The aforesaid provision has been considered by both the courts below which have concurrently held that the life estate created by Pullareddy in favour of Sheshamma was not in lieu of her maintenance as she was already managing the properties in question and in no uncertain terms it was the donee’s desire that the said properties should ultimately go to his son Ramireddy, Respondent 1 herein. Once that is established, apart from other surrounding circumstances, the immediate fallout is that Sheshamma’s rights in the properties came to be governed by sub-section (2) of Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, and her right does not blossom into an absolute estate as contemplated under sub-section (1).”

167. We have already adverted to the terms of the Will. It is recited in the Will that the properties mentioned in A Schedule’ are bequeathed to his wife, no doubt, for her life. This is a case where the Will itself specifically recites that she is to take income from the properties for her expenses, inter alia. She is to make use of the income also for giving presents to his sisters on ceremonial occasions. Therefore, this is a case where the very document, which the appellants lays store by, makes it unnecessary for us to search for any evidence to find out what is the purpose of giving the property. The Testator has made his motive clear. The argument of the appellants that the very same document refers to the fact that she has been given other properties towards her maintenance, does not, in our view, detract from the central question as to what impelled the Testator to create the life estate. The Will was executed on 10.05.1955 which is prior to the Hindu Succession Act unlike in the case of Sadhu Singh (supra) . Obviously, such a Will could not have been executed anticipating the provisions of Section 14(2) of the Hindu Succession Act. R. Krishnammal was certainly entitled to maintenance and the bequest in question expressly refer to the purposes. The properties involved were not bequeathed to R. Krishnammal without her having any right at all. The Will did not purport to bequeath property by way of creating new rights in the facts of this case. Even the case of the appellants is that she was provided for maintenance by giving her other properties as indicated in the Will. If the argument of the appellants is to be accepted, we would have to consider whether what would be the quantum of maintenance which the Testator would consider appropriate. The extent of the other property is not shown. We would think that such an exercise is unnecessary when the terms of the Will indicate that the Testator intended that his widow should be able to maintain herself appropriately from the income of the properties he was bequeathing to her also, and for that purpose, created, no doubt what can be described as, a limited estate.

168. In this regard, we may also notice that the following observations in C.Masilamani Mudaliar vs. Idol of Sri Swaminathaswami, AIR 1996 SC 1697:

“30. Shri Rangam then contended that when the testator has thought of providing only maintenance to the two widows, the properties being more than 10 acres, the maintenance must be only proportionate to the needs of the widow and to that extent the widow acquires an absolute right but not the entire property. We find no force in that contention. It is to be seen that under the pre-existing law, she is entitled to remain in possession of the whole estate known as widow’s estate and after the Act has come into force that widow’s estate was blossomed into an absolute estate by operation of Section 14(1). Even in the Will Ex. A-l, no such restrictive covenant was engrafted giving reasonable proportion of income consistent with her needs for maintenance. On the other hand, the express covenant is that, he recognised her right to maintenance and in lieu of the maintenance property was given to her for her maintenance during her lifetime. That is the pre-existing right as per then existing law. After the Act has come into force, the limited estate has blossomed into an absolute estate. Therefore, the doctrine of proportionality of maintenance is not applicable and cannot be extended.”

169. In such circumstances, we would think that the view taken by the High Court that Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act applies, cannot be characterised as erroneous.

‘POSSESSED’ OF IN SECTION 14(1) OF HINDU SUCCESSION ACT, THE PLEADING AS TO POSSESSION OF THE PLAINT SCHEDULE PROPERTY IN 0.S. NO. 89/83 AND O.S. NO. 71/58 AND ITS IMPACT.

170. In O.S. No. 89 of 1983, there is reference to the death of Krishnammal on 30.04.1977 and that thereupon the plaintiff and defendants 1 to 3 have become entitled to possession. We further notice paragraph 5 wherein it is stated that the plaintiff and Defendants 1 to 3 (branch of Lakshmiah Naidu) were in possession of the properties and enjoyment thereof jointly. However, we further notice that in paragraph 21, it is alleged that the defendants 4 to 11 (branch of Lakshmiah Naidu) are in possession without any title whatsoever, and that their possession is wrongful.

171. If we revert backwards in point of time, we notice the following pleadings in O.S. No. 1971 of 1958, the suit filed by R. Krishnammal, the widow. She would say that the properties described in Schedule-I, fell to the share of her husband in the partition and he has separate possession. The properties which were self-acquired by him were in Schedule-IA. Thereafter, she referred to the proceedings under Section 145. In paragraph-10, R.Krishnammal averred that the possession of the defendants in Schedule-I and IA is unlawful and that she is entitled to succeed on either footing and recover possession of either Schedule-I and IA properties or moiety of the properties in Schedule-I, IA and II. There is a reference to a receiver appointed during the proceedings under Section 145. In paragraph 17, it is averred inter alia that the cause of action arose on or about June, 1955, when defendants1 to 4 unlawfully trespassed on the properties and on 16.04.1956, when Revenue Divisional Officer, Coimbatore upheld the possession of R.V. Lakshmiah Naidu and his sons. In the application under Order XXIII Rule 3 filed in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, it is inter alia stated as follows:-

“Whereas on the death of Rangaswami Naidu on 01.06.1955, the executor could not take possession of the properties……..”

172. In Gummalapura Taggina Matada Kotturuswami vs. Setra Veeravva and others, AIR 1959 SC 577 a Bench of three learned Judges, interpreting the word possessed’ , laid down as follows:

“11. … Of course, possession referred to in Section 14 need not be actual physical possession or personal occupation of the property by the Hindu female but may be possession in law. The possession of a licensee, lessee or a mortgagee from the female owner or the possession of a guardian or a trustee or an agent of the female owner would be her possession for the purpose of Section 14. The word “possessed” is used in Section 14 in a broad sense and in the context possession means the state of owning or having in one’ s hands or power. It includes possession by receipt of rents and profits”. The learned Judges expressed the view that even if a trespasser were in possession of the land belonging to a female owner, it might conceivably be regarded as being in possession of the female owner, provided the trespasser had not perfected his title. We do not think that it is necessary in the present case to go to the extent to which the learned Judges went. It is sufficient to say that “possessed” in Section 14 is used in a broad sense and in the context means the state of owning or having in one’ s hand or power. In the case of Gostha Behari vs. Haridas Samanta [AIR 1957 Cal 557, 559] P.N. Mookherjee, J. expressed his opinion as to the meaning of the words “any property possessed by a female Hindu” in the following words:

“The opening words in “property possessed by a female Hindu” obviously mean that to come within the purview of the section the property must be in possession of the female concerned at the date of the commencement of the Act. They clearly contemplate the female’s possession when the Act came into force. That possession might have been either actual or constructive or in any form recognized by law, but unless the female Hindu, whose limited estate in the disputed property is claimed to have been transformed into absolute estate under this particular section, was at least in such possession, taking the word – possession” in its widest connotation, when the Act came into force, the section would not apply.”

In our opinion, the view expressed above is the correct view as to how the words “any property possessed by a female Hindu” should be interpreted. …” (Emphasis supplied)

173. In Eramma (supra), this Court has made it clear that Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act does not confer title on a mere trespasser. It does not confer any right on a person possessing property without any vestige of title. We have made these remarks in the context of the following set of circumstances:

Following the death of her husband on 01.06.1955, there are two streams providing right to make a claim over the property in favour of R. Krishnammal, when the Hindu Succession Act came into force. Under the Will, she was conferred with a life estate. If the Will is treated as non-existent or invalid, then, again there can be two situations. Her case would fall to be covered either under Section 3(1) or 3(2) of the Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act, 1937 depending on whether the property was separate property of V. Rangaswami Naidu or an interest in the Joint Hindu Family Property. She was also having a right to be maintained. Therefore, in the facts of this case in view of the finding that the properties bequeathed under the Will and which are the plaint scheduled properties are not the separate properties of Rangaswamy Naidu, She would have the right to the properties under Section 3(2) of the 1937 Act. This we observe for the reason that when the Hindu Succession Act came into force, R. Krishnammal had lost her tussle under the proceedings under Section 145 of the CrPC. We have also seen the nature of the pleading which she made in O.S. No. 71 of 1958. She specifically states it that she is entitled to recover possession of the property. No doubt, she does aver that she is entitled to treat herself as in joint possession. We may however notice the decision in Kotturuswami case (supra) , in fact, came to be considered by another three Judge Bench of this Court in Mangal Singh and Others vs. Smt. Rattno (Dead) by her legal representatives and another reported in AIR 1967 SC 1786. Therein, this Court held as follows:-

“It was urged on behalf of the appellants that, in order to attract the provisions of S.14(l) of the Act, it must be shown that the female Hindu was either in actual physical possession, or constructive possession of the disputed property. On the other side, it was urged that even if a female Hindu be, in fact, out of actual possession, the property must be held to be possessed by her, if her ownership rights in that property still exist and, in exercise of those ownership rights, she is capable of obtaining actual possession of it. It appears to us that, on the language used in S.14(l) of the Act, the latter interpretation must be accepted.”

Noticing Section 14 (1) of the Act and that it covered property possessed by a female Hindu whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Act the Court proceeded to explain the circumstances in which the decision in Kotturuswami case (supra) was rendered. And thereafter the Court laid down as follows:

“…The Court was not laying down any general principle that S.14(l) will not be attracted at all to cases where the female Hindu was not possessed of the property at the date of the commencement of the Act. In fact, there are no words used in S.14(l) which would lead to the interpretation that the property must be possessed by the female Hindu at the date of the commencement of the Act. It appears to us that the relevant date on which the female Hindu should be possessed of the property in dispute, must be the date on which the question of applying the provisions of S.14(l) arises. If, on that date, when the provisions of this Section are sought to be applied, the property is possessed by a female Hindu, it would be held that she is full owner of it and not merely a limited owner. Such a question may arise in her own lifetime, or may arise subsequently when succession to her property opens on her death. The case before us falls in the second category, because Smt. Harnam Kaur was a limited owner of the property before the commencement of the Act, and the question that has arisen is whether Smt. Rattno was entitled to succeed to her rights in this disputed property on her death which took place in the year 1958 after the commencement of the Act….”

In fact, we notice that this decision was not referred to by the two Judge Bench which rendered the decision in Sadhu Singh (supra). However, we find that it has been adverted to in AIR 1996 SC 172 (see para 14) and a very recent judgment of this Court in Shyam Narayan Singh and Ors. vs. Rama Kant Singh and Ors. reported in 2018(1) RCR (Civil) 981 rendered again by a Bench of two learned Judges. Therein, this Court held inter alia as follows:

“In other words, all that has to be shown by her is that she had acquired the property and that she was ‘possessed’ of the property at the point of time when her title was called into question”.

In view of the dicta in Manga1 Singh (supra), we feel reassured of our view that Section 14(1) applies.

174. Incidentally, we may notice what DW1, the witness on behalf of the appellants-legatees himself says:

“..When Cr.PC 145 proceedings was conducted the properties were handed over to Latchumaiah and his sons by the receiver. From that onwards the properties are under their possession till today. We never being in the possession of the properties.”

CIVIL APPEAL NOS. 1045-1050 of 2013

175. The appellants claim on the basis of sale deeds executed by A. Alagiriswami, who is the First Defendant in both the Suits. The case, which is sought to be setup is that, there was a partition among the Legatees of the plaint schedule properties and the properties purchased by them, was among the properties allotted to the First Defendant. Their entire case is based on A. Alagiriswami having rights in the property. We have already come to the conclusion that A. Alagiriswami has no rights, for the reasons which we have given. The arguments based on the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958, barring the Lakshmiah branch from questioning the partition or the Will, cannot be upheld. Insofar as we have held that R. Krishnammal had become the absolute owner under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, and having regard to the compromise Decree in O.S. No. 71 of 1958 by which she had given-up all her rights in favour of the respondents, no right vested with A. Alagiriswami which he could have passed to the appellants. The plaintiffs in O.S. No. 649 of 1985, having sought a declaration of their right, and which they were entitled to. The contention that there was no challenge to the sale deeds, may not advance the case of the appellants. We have noticed what DW1, A. Alagiriswami, one of the Legatees has deposed regarding possession. In fact, as already noted, the appellants did not challenge the Decree of the Trial Court and they were apparently sailing along with the appellants who were the Legatees under the Will. We see, therefore, no merit in their case.

176. In regard to the other Appeals, we do not find any merit in view of our findings and the issues which fell for consideration. There is no merit in any of the appeals. Consequently, all the appeals will stand dismissed. There will be no order as to costs.

 

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Women converting to islam for marriage if reconverts to original religion ., The act by itself nullifies the marriage

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Case against multi state Co operative Society can be filled before Central Registrar Only.

Law

(2013) 4 CPJ 333

NATIONAL CONSUMER DISPUTES REDRESSAL COMMISSION

ANJANA ABRAHAM — Appellant

Vs.

KOOTHATTUKULAM FARMERS SERVICE CO-OPERATIVE BANK LTD. — Respondent

( Before : J.M. Malik, Presiding Member and Dr. S.M. Kantikar, Member )

Revision Petition No. 4871 of 2012 from Order dated 23.8.2012 in First Appeal No. 756 of 2011 of State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, Kerala

Decided on : 02-09-2013

  • Consumer Protection Act, 1986 – Section 2(1)(e), Section 21(b)

Counsel for Appearing Parties

Mr. Vinod Joseph PJ, Advocate, for the Appellant; Mr. Biju P. Raman and Ms. Usha Nandini, Advocates, for the Respondent

Final Result : Dismissed

ORDER

J.M. Malik, Presiding Member The key question which falls for consideration is, “Whether a Member can pick up a conflict with Co-operative Society, under the Consumer Protection Act”? The facts of this case are these. Ms. Anjana Abraham, the petitioner/complainant has filed this case through her Power of Attorney, Mr. Abraham C.Mathew, who is her father. On 29.5.1989, Mr. Abraham C. Mathew, deposited a sum of Rs. 10,000 under Mangalya Deposit Scheme with the OP/respondent. As per the Scheme, the complainant was entitled to get back Rs. 1,60,000 on the date of maturity, i.e. 29.5.2009. When the complainant requested on 5.6.2009, to pay the said maturity amount, the respondent refused to pay the same. The OPs have admitted that the said deposit was made. It is averred that the General Body of the Bank reduced the rate of interest. The petitioner/complainant invested the same and the OP was ready to pay the interest, as mentioned in the letter dated 30.6.2003.

2. The District Forum partly allowed the complaint, filed by the complainant. The State Commission accepted the appeal filed by the opposite party/respondent and dismissed the complaint.

3. We have heard the arguments. As a matter of fact, the Consumer Fora have no jurisdiction to try the disputes arising between Co-operative Societies and its Members. Section 69 of the Co-operative Societies Act, 1969, runs as follows:

“Chapter IX

Settlement of Disputes

69. Disputes to be decided by Co-operative Arbitration Court and Registrar(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the first time being in force, if a dispute arises:

(a) among members; past member or person claiming through members, past members and deceased members; or

(b) between a member, past member or deceased member and the society, its committee or any officer, agent or employee of that society; or

(c) between the society or its committee and any past committee, any officer, agent or employee or any past officer, past agent or past employee or the nominee, heirs or legal representatives of any deceased officer, deceased agent or deceased employee of the society; or

(d) between the society and any other society; or

(e) between a society and the members of a society affiliated to it; or

(f) between the society and a person, other than a member of the society, who has been granted a loan by the society or with whom the society has or had business transactions or any person claiming through such a person; or

(g) between the society and a surety of a member, past member, deceased member or employee or a person, other than a member, who has been granted a loan by the society, whether such a surety is or is not a member of the society; or

(h) between the society and a creditor of the society; such dispute shall be referred to the Co-operative Arbitration Court constituted under Section 70A, in the case of non-monetary disputes and to the Registrar, in the case of monetary disputes and the Arbitration Court, or the Registrar, as the case may be, shall decide such dispute and no other authority, shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or other proceedings in respect of such dispute.”

4. Similar view was taken in the case reported as P.P. Kapoor v. Government Servants Co-operative House Building Society Ltd., (1999) 1 CPJ 81, wherein it was held in Para 7 of its judgment, as under:

“In our view, the dispute sought to be raised was a dispute arising out of the alleged non-compliance of provisions of the Delhi Co-operative Societies Act and the Rules framed thereunder, under Section 60 of the said Act. Section 93(1)(c) of the said Act vests jurisdiction in respect of the disputes required to be referred to the Registrar under Section 60. Sub-rule 3 ousts jurisdiction of “any Court, on any ground, whatsoever” to question any order/decision or award made under the Act. In Dilip Bapat and Anr. v. Panchyati Co-operative Housing Society Limited, (1993) 1 CPJ 68 (NC), it was observed in Para-11 of the report that dispute of this nature is not a consumer dispute under the Consumer Protection Act and the right Forum was to have ones remedy under the Co-operative Societies Act.”

5. Consequently, we dismiss the revision petition, but grant opportunity to the petitioner/complainant to seek his/her grievance(s) before the appropriate Forum, except the Consumer fora, as per law.

 

 

Women converting to islam for marriage if reconverts to original religion ., The act by itself nullifies the marriage